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galadriel100
I have this question and I'm not sure what to do.

Show that the function in part 1 is symmetrical about x=Pi.
(Let f(a+x)=f(a-x), for all x, and show that a=Pi)

the function in part 1 is... y=2cosec(x/2)-2

cheers

I'm not sure if the following is right.

Let 2csc(a+x/2) -2 = 2csc(a-x/2) -2
=> 2csc(a+x/2) = 2csc(a-x/2).......................cancelling -2's
=> csc(a+x/2) = csc(a-x/2)..........................dividing both sides by 2
=> sin(a+x/2) = sin(a-x/2).............................inverting both sides
=> sin(a/2)cos(x/2) + sin(x/2)cos(a/2) = sin(a/2)cos(x/2) - sin(x/2)cos(a/2)
=> 2sin(x/2)cos(a/2) = 0
=> cos(a/2) = 0..........................................because we want relationship to hold for all x
=> a/2 = pi/2
=> a = pi
Reply 2
e-unit
I'm not sure if the following is right.

Let 2csc(a+x/2) -2 = 2csc(a-x/2) -2
=> 2csc(a+x/2) = 2csc(a-x/2).......................cancelling -2's
=> csc(a+x/2) = csc(a-x/2)..........................dividing both sides by 2
=> sin(a+x/2) = sin(a-x/2).............................inverting both sides
=> sin(a/2)cos(x/2) + sin(x/2)cos(a/2) = sin(a/2)cos(x/2) - sin(x/2)cos(a/2)
=> 2sin(x/2)cos(a/2) = 0
=> cos(a/2) = 0..........................................because we want relationship to hold for all x
=> a/2 = pi/2
=> a = pi


How did you get
=> a/2 = pi/2
=> a = pi

Where did the pi come from? something/2 must equal 0, and cos pi/2=0 Is that right?

?

I don't think it works out....
=> sin(a/2)cos(x/2) + sin(x/2)cos(a/2) = sin(a/2)cos(x/2) - sin(x/2)cos(a/2)
I think it should be sin(a)cos(x/2) etc.
Meaning, at the end, there wil be no cos(a/2). They're only be cos(a), so then the pi/2 can't be multiplied by 2, getting pi....

I'm confused.....
where i have e.g. csc(a+x/2), I meant csc[(a+x)/2]. It was unclear. Sorry.

cos(a/2) = 0
=> a/2 = arccos(0)
=> a/2 = pi/2
=> a = pi