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AQA A2 Economics Unit 4 - June 20th

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Reply 300
Original post by gtcalder
Competitive advantage is just producing goods at a lower unit cost etc


thank you!!!
oh whats the difference between absolute and competitive then? :/
In what case are budgets self correcting?
Original post by Super Mario 64
In what case are budgets self correcting?


You could argue that deficits caused by automatic stabilises are self-correcting as they balance out over the economic cycle. Or, alternatively, that deficits funded by capital spending(or direct tax cuts) improve the long-term economic capacity making the debt more sustainable.
(edited 11 years ago)
Reply 303
Original post by Super Mario 64
In what case are budgets self correcting?


You mean like automatic stabilisers?
Or are you talking about when a government undertakes expansionary fiscal policy in a recession and makes the money back in the following boom?
Original post by tallysingh
In basic terms, the short run phillips curve shows the general trade off between, unemployment and inflation, at any moment in time, if a government is to reduce the rate of unemplyment, it will have to accept an increase inflation.

Monetarists, however, pointed out that an the phillips curve does not show stagflation, which occured in the 1970s, this is likely to have been the result of a supply side shock, which led to high inflation, high unemployment, and negative output gap, something which was "impossible" according to the Phillips curve. Therefore, the long run phillips curve is a straight vertical line, there is no trade off between inflation and unemployment, and the only way to reduce the natural rate of unemployment, would be to accept an increase inflation. This can be shown by a diagram (which i do not know how to draw here however it should be in your textbook showing a wage-price spiral leading to accelerating inflation) Keynesians believe unemployment is demand deficient, however increases in demand, in the long run do not lead to increase in employment, they lead to increase inflation, with no effect on employment and output.

Therefore, the only way to achieve real economic growth are supply side polices. Cut cooperation tax, lower costs of production, cut income tax, and the education, investment etc. Hope this helps, if anyone can add to do this, or highlight any errors, please do so.


This is good analysis but the only way to reduce the NRU/NAIRU is to use supply side policies. "and the only way to reduce the natural rate of unemployment, would be to accept an increase inflation." This is partially correct. Any attempt to reduce unemployment by government below the NRU will result in rising inflation. Reducing the natural rate requires supply side growth.
Original post by Super Mario 64
In what case are budgets self correcting?


Cyclical deficits. The notion is that due to automatic stabilisers, the government will receive less tax revenues compared to how much it spends - in unemployment benefit pretty much.

Just think of economic cycles, when the times are good, government gets more tax than it spends due to low unemployment thus lower JSA payouts. During bad times the opposite happens.
Original post by ilovecatsforlife
Cyclical deficits. The notion is that due to automatic stabilisers, the government will receive less tax revenues compared to how much it spends - in unemployment benefit pretty much.

Just think of economic cycles, when the times are good, government gets more tax than it spends due to low unemployment thus lower JSA payouts. During bad times the opposite happens.


Ah right okay thank you and in what ways would export driven growth in countries like China be bad?
Original post by Super Mario 64
Ah right okay thank you and in what ways would export driven growth in countries like China be bad?


Haven't been over this for a while. Do you mean bad for the UK economy? Well, it can lead to structural unemployment because jobs start to move over there as it's cheaper, and they're becoming more skilled. GB is running out of engineers and mathematicians etc.
Reply 308
Original post by Super Mario 64
Ah right okay thank you and in what ways would export driven growth in countries like China be bad?


It reduces what is available for consumption in the country currently. So if the resources used for the exports were used to satisfy current demand there will be more available for current consumption.
Also if China has a large current account surplus by definition other countries such as the UK will have a current account deficit and this would create friction between countries.
Reply 309
What happens to the value of automatic stabilisers during a recession?
Reply 310
Original post by Nuss
What happens to the value of automatic stabilisers during a recession?


If by value, you mean their effectiveness, it depends on how prolonged the period of the recession is. If the recession is short, such as that of a V-Shaped recession curve, then we will see most noticeably a cyclical deficit and, as a result, automatic stabilisers smoothing out any shocks in the economic cycle. This is shown on the budget schedule.

If it is a prolonged recession, automatic stabilisers will have a lesser effect, and their value diminished by the inability for market forces to smooth out something that only economic policy can correct. In this case, the government can either undertake action of Keynesian expansionary fiscal policy, where government spending increases and taxes are cut allowing AD to increase ("spending your way out of a recession") or the monetary suggestion of expansionary monetary policy, such as the £75bn B.O.E quantitative easing injection into the circular flow, where liquidity is injected into the economy and AD is spurred.

In an L-Shaped Recession or a W-Shaped recession however, there may be use of policies which effectively contract fiscal policy, such as the austerity package of the Cameron Government. This essentially brings about a trade-off between social and living standards (Due to recessed public utilities), or the major government spending reduction bringing about new future expectations, encouraging private consumption.

Hoped this helped.
Reply 311
Original post by Prolific
If by value, you mean their effectiveness, it depends on how prolonged the period of the recession is. If the recession is short, such as that of a V-Shaped recession curve, then we will see most noticeably a cyclical deficit and, as a result, automatic stabilisers smoothing out any shocks in the economic cycle. This is shown on the budget schedule.

If it is a prolonged recession, automatic stabilisers will have a lesser effect, and their value diminished by the inability for market forces to smooth out something that only economic policy can correct. In this case, the government can either undertake action of Keynesian expansionary fiscal policy, where government spending increases and taxes are cut allowing AD to increase ("spending your way out of a recession") or the monetary suggestion of expansionary monetary policy, such as the £75bn B.O.E quantitative easing injection into the circular flow, where liquidity is injected into the economy and AD is spurred.

In an L-Shaped Recession or a W-Shaped recession however, there may be use of policies which effectively contract fiscal policy, such as the austerity package of the Cameron Government. This essentially brings about a trade-off between social and living standards (Due to recessed public utilities), or the major government spending reduction bringing about new future expectations, encouraging private consumption.

Hoped this helped.


By value I mean monetary value. I read somewhere that the value of automatic stabilisers falls during a recession and increases during a boom.

Can anyone confirm this?
Reply 312
Original post by zahmed1
thank you!!!
oh whats the difference between absolute and competitive then? :/


Absolute advantage is just one country having the ability to produce more of a good than another country, whereas competitive is producing goods at a lower unit cost effectively producing more efficiently (Producing more of a good is different to producing more efficiently) eg..
Country A produces 10 cars at a total cost of £100000
Country B produces 7 cars at a total cost of £55000

Country A has absolute advantage (produces more)
Country B has competitive advantage, is more efficient in production (cheaper cost per unit of output)

You understand comparative, yes?

If not...
Reply 313
Is this correct? (especially the bit in bold)

If there is a fall in economic growth, there will be a reduction in automatic stabilisers e.g. if people spend less, VAT Receipts will be lower.
What is the impact on the UK of rising oil prices?

This is cost-push inflation, so firms will face higher costs of production, shifting in the SRAS curves. Firms may have to lower wages to compensate the extra costs, and may even fire workers ==> increases unemployment.
Consumers will see higher price levels so consumption will decrease as they lose confidence. And firms have less profit margins to invest so investment falls. Both shift in AD levels.

Can you talk about this causing exports to be uncompetitive as prices are higher, or should it be more supply focussed?

Can someone give me extra points on what to write for this kind of question, with some evaluative points as well please? (+rep available! :redface:)
Thanks so much in advance :smile:
Original post by Nuss
Is this correct? (especially the bit in bold)

If there is a fall in economic growth, there will be a reduction in automatic stabilisers e.g. if people spend less, VAT Receipts will be lower.


Think you're a bit confused mate, after reading your previous posts.

Automatic stabilisers aren't an objects, they're a process, and they're automatic. The government has no control over them. They go with the economic cycle.

They keep the economic flow going in times of economic slowdown/recessions.

Booms/recoveries - Higher tax revenues and less government spending - as the govt. doesn't need to spend as much on unemployment benefits.

Slowdowns/Recessions - Lower tax revenues as more less people are paying income tax and spending less thus less VAT, unemployment will rise so Government spending increases as they people take utilise their right to unemployment benefit.
Reply 316
Original post by sweetascandy
What is the impact on the UK of rising oil prices?

This is cost-push inflation, so firms will face higher costs of production, shifting in the SRAS curves. Firms may have to lower wages to compensate the extra costs, and may even fire workers ==> increases unemployment.
Consumers will see higher price levels so consumption will decrease as they lose confidence. And firms have less profit margins to invest so investment falls. Both shift in AD levels.

Can you talk about this causing exports to be uncompetitive as prices are higher, or should it be more supply focussed?

Can someone give me extra points on what to write for this kind of question, with some evaluative points as well please? (+rep available! :redface:)
Thanks so much in advance :smile:


You need to talk about what oil prices actually mean to domestic firms. Some oil is produced domestically, and therefore it is not as detrimental as it may appear, but costs of production will increase if the firm is export-dependent. This means that the firm will face the opportunity cost of lowering their marginal profit boundaries or increasing their prices. Since oil is price inelastic, it is most likely that firms will accept the costs, pay their workers less and sell their products at higher prices. In the long-run this will mean domestic firms will be uncompetitive.

You have mentioned briefly cost push inflation, you can then dissect this further and say that since many firms cannot undertake the costs, they will employ less workers and as a result there will be greater unemployment.

If oil prices increase export performance will decrease, and since there is a requirement for the government to act before a larger current account deficit is incurred, there may be increased government expenditure to subsidise these companies, and to provide benefits to those that are made unemployed.

Government revenues will decrease, as the firms no longer have any advantage over international companies, but this largely depends on whether this is a small increase. This has the effect of lower business and consumer confidence, which means there will be less investments made by large businesses and over a long period of time the inflation will increase if the prices do not. You must evaluate by saying that this is also determined by inflationary expectations, and that if speculators jump to conclusions and think that inflation is just around the corner, then inflation will persist.

You could mention a little on Gordon's Triangle, and that whether oil prices are detrimental to the economy is dependent on if there is 'embedded', built-in inflation, or whether an increase in prices means that employees will create a vicious circle, testing their employers and making them increase their real wage rates to match price increases. (Wage/price spiral).

If you need any other points, let me know.
Also, can anyone clarify, for AQA, do we need to use SRAS/LRAS rather than AS curves? and LRAS shows the maximum capacity the economy can operate at given the factors of production available. The only way to increase it, is to use supply side policies. As for SRAS, this is the amount of goods and services a firm can produce? And shifts are caused by productivity and costs?
Reply 318
Original post by ilovecatsforlife
Also, can anyone clarify, for AQA, do we need to use SRAS/LRAS rather than AS curves? and LRAS shows the maximum capacity the economy can operate at given the factors of production available. The only way to increase it, is to use supply side policies. As for SRAS, this is the amount of goods and services a firm can produce? And shifts are caused by productivity and costs?


You use SRAS/LRAS depending on the question. You will use an AS curve if you are talking about Keynesian economics, as Keynesian doesn't have a LRAS curve. Supply-side policies are designed to shift the PPF outwards, and increase the spare capacity of the economy. SRAS is what the entire economy can produce in the short-run, not a single firm.
Original post by Prolific
You use SRAS/LRAS depending on the question. You will use an AS curve if you are talking about Keynesian economics, as Keynesian doesn't have a LRAS curve. Supply-side policies are designed to shift the PPF outwards, and increase the spare capacity of the economy. SRAS is what the entire economy can produce in the short-run, not a single firm.


Sorry to be a pain, but which occasions would you need to use a Keynesian supply curve?

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