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    I have seen that if I want to get anywhere in Law, I realistically need to achieve a 2:1.

    However, there is a whole 9/10% within the 2:1 range. Does it make any difference if I achieved 60%, or 69%? Or is a 2:1 simply a 2:1?
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    (Original post by Knalchemist)
    I have seen that if I want to get anywhere in Law, I realistically need to achieve a 2:1.

    However, there is a whole 9/10% within the 2:1 range. Does it make any difference if I achieved 60%, or 69%? Or is a 2:1 simply a 2:1?
    Firms usually ask for every module % which would suggest it does, but it's impossible to know how much weight they place on it (other than some like Slaughters who say 'good 2:1' which shows they do care about the range within it).
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    (Original post by roh)
    Firms usually ask for every module % which would suggest it does, but it's impossible to know how much weight they place on it (other than some like Slaughters who say 'good 2:1' which shows they do care about the range within it).
    I didn't know this. Thanks a bunch!
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    Yes, it makes a difference when applying to law firms. Firms generally ask for a breakdown of your grades - given that most people get 2:1s, there is a significant difference between a borderline 2:1 and a high 2:1. There is less difference when applying for other lines of work but I guess it could still be relevant depending on what you are applying for.
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    It makes all the difference when applying for a training contract because they see the module breakdown. But if you are offered a training contract and then perform in your final year at a level which brings your overall 'average' down to a bare 60 or 61, this won't affect your training contract offer if that firm merely made your offer conditional upon a 2:1.
 
 
 
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