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    I only thing I've heard is that "because it jumps" or "because there is less membrane to depolarize".
    Anyone got a solid reason or idea as to why a jumping impulse is faster than a continuous one?
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    The membrane only has to depolarise at the nodes of ranvier - 1um apart - rather than depolarise across the whole nerve.

    So, the Na+ K+ pump etc. across the whole nerve would obviously take a lot longer than at 1um iterations across the nerve.
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    Just to help out, you could probably think of it as running down a road and having to ring every door bell which would take a long time, or running down a road and ringing every other door bell which would take time but would be a lot quicker. weird analogy I know but it might help
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    (Original post by Xenilbohl)
    Just to help out, you could probably think of it as running down a road and having to ring every door bell which would take a long time, or running down a road and ringing every other door bell which would take time but would be a lot quicker. weird analogy I know but it might help
    Then wouldn't it be best not to ring any bells?
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    (Original post by Nick_)
    Then wouldn't it be best not to ring any bells?
    haha yh it would be but we can assume that the ringing of the bells refers to depolariasations of the membrane to reach an action potential, so...you get the point, maybe it was a bad example
 
 
 
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