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    The distance by motorway from A to B is 144 miles. For a motorist whose car is expected to break down once every 30,000 miles of motorway driving, and makes the round trip once a week, calculate the probability of having more than one break down in the same year.

    I said that for every 288 miles, the number of expected breakdowns is 0.0096. How do I interpet the "in the same year" part of the question, I'm very confused?
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    (Original post by KeyFingot)
    ...
    Since she makes the same trip every week for a year, annual mileage is...?
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    Since she makes the same trip every week for a year, annual mileage is...?
    Ah I see, ~15000 miles right? thanks

    I get 0.01 as the answer, do you mind checking this?
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    (Original post by KeyFingot)
    Ah I see, ~15000 miles right? thanks

    I get 0.01 as the answer, do you mind checking this?
    Agree with the mileage.

    I got 0.09

    Lambda was 0.4992.
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    Agree with the mileage.

    I got 0.09

    Lambda was 0.4992.
    Oh I see, rounding errors! I used  \lambda as 0.5 which is where the errors come in.

    Thanks ghostwalker!
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    (Original post by KeyFingot)
    Oh I see, rounding errors! I used  \lambda as 0.5 which is where the errors come in.

    Thanks ghostwalker!
    Np, although, even with \lambda=0.5 I get 0.09. So I'd suspect finger problem on the calculator.
 
 
 
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