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How do atypical antipsychotic drugs reduce negative symptoms in schizophrenia? Watch

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    As far as I know, atypical antipsychotic drugs are serotonin-antagonist, and they can reduce negative symptoms in schizophrenic patients such as withdrawal from social interactions, flattened mood etc.

    But isn't serotonin a ''feed good'' neurotransmitter and isn't it A DECREASED LEVEL OF SEROTONIN THAT CAUSES social withdrawal and ''flattening of mood''? Isn't serotonin essential for social interactions? So how come the drugs that antagonize serotonin can reduce negative symptoms in schizophrenic patients?
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    (Original post by MedQ)
    As far as I know, atypical antipsychotic drugs are serotonin-antagonist, and they can reduce negative symptoms in schizophrenic patients such as withdrawal from social interactions, flattened mood etc.

    But isn't serotonin a ''feed good'' neurotransmitter and isn't it A DECREASED LEVEL OF SEROTONIN THAT CAUSES social withdrawal and ''flattening of mood''? Isn't serotonin essential for social interactions? So how come the drugs that antagonize serotonin can reduce negative symptoms in schizophrenic patients?
    Not all anti-psychotic drugs are only serotonin antagonists. For example, 1st generation anti-psychotic drugs (e.g. chlorpromazine) works by blocking D2 (dopamine) receptors exclusively meaning that less dopamine can bind to the synapse.

    However, some 2nd generation anti-psychotic drugs, clozapine, block both D2 and serotonin receptors, so it could be that the anti-psychotic drug you're referring isn't exclusively a serotonin antagonist.

    Anti psychotic drugs generally remove positive symptoms of schizophrenia, not necessarily negative ones. Both serotonin and dopamine are associated with 'happy' feelings and therefore, by blocking D2 and serotonin receptors, patients are likely to feel more depressed (i.e. a flattened mood) a typical negative symptom of schizophrenia.

    After re reading your question, I don't think I've answered it! So sorry for that. This article looks promising, however: http://www.uplink.com.au/lawlibrary/...ocs/Doc25.html
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    (Original post by Neon-Soldier32)
    Not all anti-psychotic drugs are only serotonin antagonists. For example, 1st generation anti-psychotic drugs (e.g. chlorpromazine) works by blocking D2 (dopamine) receptors exclusively meaning that less dopamine can bind to the synapse.

    However, some 2nd generation anti-psychotic drugs, clozapine, block both D2 and serotonin receptors, so it could be that the anti-psychotic drug you're referring isn't exclusively a serotonin antagonist.

    Anti psychotic drugs generally remove positive symptoms of schizophrenia, not necessarily negative ones. Both serotonin and dopamine are associated with 'happy' feelings and therefore, by blocking D2 and serotonin receptors, patients are likely to feel more depressed (i.e. a flattened mood) a typical negative symptom of schizophrenia.

    After re reading your question, I don't think I've answered it! So sorry for that. This article looks promising, however: http://www.uplink.com.au/lawlibrary/...ocs/Doc25.html
    Thank you very much for your reply.

    The question came to my mind when I was informed that second generation antipsychotic drugs actually alleviate negative symptoms of schizophrenia, as opposed to 1st generation drugs which are known to reduce only the positive symptoms. This includes making patients socially more interactive. But the drugs, as they block serotonin receptors, are theoretically supposed to make them MORE DEPRESSED. This seem paradoxical to me.

    However, thanks a lot for the link. I'll have to manage some time to read it soon.
 
 
 
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