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Why do Englanders rule the world and not for example the French or Spanish? watch


    (Original post by edwinemanuelposse)
    While the number of Spanish or French people in the year 1700 were the same as the number of Englanders???

    ( i mean, whole the A world know English and almost nobody German )

    And for example whole the continent America speak the English language....

    This i never completely understand,..

    A little thing called the British Empire. The greatest maritime Empire in history. Also being the first industrialised country in the world helped, as did important military victories including the end of the Napoleonic Wars (which allowed us to enter the Pax Brittannica - a period of relative peace in Europe in which Britain, the world's only superpower, was able to control key sea routes and expand its Empire).

    And France and England are not "about the same size" in area. France is significantly larger. France is about 2.5 times the size of the United Kingdom, let alone England alone.

    (Original post by edwinemanuelposse)
    Yes but are u sure that the number of French people were less then the UK people? the size of the land of both two are almost the same....
    In North america which was 4000 miles across the Atlantic away from the old country I think the french had like 600,000 and the english a few million suring the seven years war.

    *english. Through a more efficient army and navy.
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