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    (Original post by Chief Wiggum)
    lol, my post looked rather angry.

    But both you and TopHat posting 2011 made me resort to checking Wikipedia to make sure I wasn't going mad! :p:
    My fault entirely - when doing assignments I should try and just do them (ie still now..) rather than posting tennis stats...
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    It could have been either 2010 or 2011. The rule is you just win all 4 in a row, not necessarily within the same year as in January 1st to December 31st period. So, if he'd won the 2010 Australian or the 2011 he'd have done it. As it was, he didn't win either - denied by Djokovic and Murray.
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    Edgbaston (where I live) starts this week - wondering whether to go to next Saturday ... Great line up there
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    (Original post by TopHat)
    It could have been either 2010 or 2011. The rule is you just win all 4 in a row, not necessarily within the same year as in January 1st to December 31st period. So, if he'd won the 2010 Australian or the 2011 he'd have done it. As it was, he didn't win either - denied by Djokovic and Murray.
    Pretty sure a calendar year grand slam needs them to be in the same year (hence 'Serena Slam' and such like, rather than just being a calendar year slam).
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    (Original post by TopHat)
    It could have been either 2010 or 2011. The rule is you just win all 4 in a row, not necessarily within the same year as in January 1st to December 31st period. So, if he'd won the 2010 Australian or the 2011 he'd have done it. As it was, he didn't win either - denied by Djokovic and Murray.
    As above, a "Calendar Year Grand Slam" (otherwise known as the Grand Slam) is all 4 in the same "calendar year".

    2010 is a "calendar year".

    Doing the latter 3 in 2010 and the first 1 in 2011 is not a "calendar year". It's a non-calendar year grand slam, which would have been called a "Rafa Slam" or something similar had Nadal won his 4th in a row at the 2011 Australian Open.
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    (Original post by Chief Wiggum)
    As above, a "Calendar Year Grand Slam" (otherwise known as the Grand Slam) is all 4 in the same "calendar year".

    2010 is a "calendar year".

    Doing the latter 3 in 2010 and the first 1 in 2011 is not a "calendar year". It's a non-calendar year grand slam, which would have been called a "Rafa Slam" or something similar had Nadal won his 4th in a row at the 2011 Australian Open.
    Navratilova received the bonus pay-out for the calendar grand slam despite not winning four in the same year - French Open '84 was when she received the bonus, having started the run with Wimbledon '83. So, I don't think the ITF sees it that way.
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    (Original post by TopHat)
    Navratilova received the bonus pay-out for the calendar grand slam despite not winning four in the same year - French Open '84 was when she received the bonus, having started the run with Wimbledon '83. So, I don't think the ITF sees it that way.
    Presumably the bonus is for all 4 in a row then, as opposed to winning all 4 in a calendar year.

    I mean, the ITF does not determine what a "calendar year" is. It has an objective definition. If the ITF is suggesting that winning 3 in one year, and 1 in another year is winning all 4 in the "same calendar year", then they're idiots.

    On other tennis forums etc, it's always been pretty accepted that a "calendar year grand slam" must be winning all 4 within the same calendar year (strangely enough...), at least from what I've read.

    From Wikipedia (I haven't read this yet, but it looks relevant):

    "In 1982 the International Tennis Federation (ITF) broadened the definition of the Grand Slam as meaning any four consecutive major victories, including the ones spanning two calendar years.[9] As defined in the constitution of the ITF: "The Grand Slam titles are the championships of Australia, France, the United States of America and Wimbledon. Players who hold all four of these titles at the same time achieve the Grand Slam".[10] As this definition differs from the original definition of the Grand Slam as restricted to a single calendar year, there has been some controversy towards this redefinition in the tennis world.[11][12] Subsequently, the ITF has distanced itself from the 1982 decision, reverting to the traditional calendar-year definition (when Martina Navratilova won the 1984 French Open to become the reigning champion of all four women's singles, the ITF awarded her $1 million Grand Slam bonus in recognition of her achievement,[9] However subsequently, the ITF abandoned recognizing non-calendar year grand slams).
    Combining the Grand Slam and non-calendar year Grand Slam, the total number of times that players achieved the feat (of being the reigning champion in all four majors) expands to 18."

    Having now read the Wikipedia section I've pasted, the ITF redefinition was for the "Grand Slam", not the "Calendar Year Grand Slam". The ITF, at one point relaxed the defintion of a "Grand Slam" to include both a "Calendar Year Grand Slam" and a "Non-Calendar Year Grand Slam". I can see no evidence that the term "Calendar Year Grand Slam" was ever used to include "Non-Calendar Year Grand Slam". So Nadal only missed out on the CYGS in one year: 2010. Depending on the definition of Grand Slam that you use, you could argue that he missed out on a Grand Slam in both 2010 and 2011.

    Therefore, since your post said CYGS, Nadal ONLY missed out on this in 2010. [/pedantry]

    (Original post by TopHat)
    Navratilova received the bonus pay-out for the calendar grand slam despite not winning four in the same year - French Open '84 was when she received the bonus, having started the run with Wimbledon '83. So, I don't think the ITF sees it that way.
    The payout is for the "Grand Slam", not for the "Calendar Year Grand Slam".
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    (Original post by Sirocco11)
    Edgbaston (where I live) starts this week - wondering whether to go to next Saturday ... Great line up there
    Yeah, I was considering going in the middle of the week. Never been there before and they've got new Centre Court. Looks good from the brief glimpse I saw of it on the local news.
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    Federer/Haas lost in the doubles earlier.
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    Well, there's the end of that experiment. Maybe he's trying to improve his net play for singles matches on grass.
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    Ward chocked in his match earlier but it was in general a pretty rubbish match.
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    (Original post by Rakas21)
    Ward chocked in his match earlier but it was in general a pretty rubbish match.
    I thought there was some pretty good hitting in that match - but yh those 2 match points at 5-3 in the second passed him by :/


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    Yeah I enjoyed the Ward match, shame he couldn't win though.
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    At least Evans won before him


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    "there is the possibility of Murray having to face Nadal in the quarter-finals, seven-time champion Roger Federer in the semi-finals and world No 1 Novak Djokovic in the final if he wants to become Britain’s first male singles champion at SW19 since Fred Perry in 1936."

    Read more: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/sport/ten...#ixzz2VqFdpCcG
    Follow us: @MailOnline on Twitter | DailyMail on Facebook
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    Wow Dimitrov, this is a joke
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    Is the 2016 Olympics going to be on Clay as in 2008 it was on hard and 2012 it was on grass?
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    (Original post by ubi1)
    Is the 2016 Olympics going to be on Clay as in 2008 it was on hard and 2012 it was on grass?
    It's in Brazil so whatever tournament they usually have i guess.
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    (Original post by Slumpy)
    D'oh. I forgot to read what I was looking at. Of course I mean Rafa was denied one by the AO in 2010 (and indeed, Rafa denied Djok one in 2011 at the FO). Poor show me!
    You mean Fed denied Nole in the '11 FO Rafa did stop him from getting a non-calendar slam a year later though.
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    http://www.atpworldtour.com/News/Ten...-Athletes.aspx

    Interesting article giving some of the reasons for tennis being so lucrative for sponsors.

    http://www.atpworldtour.com/Tennis/M...ew-Sunday.aspx

    Del Potro seems to be feeling confident after his Olympics performance.
 
 
 
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