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FP2

Could someone explain to me parts 'a' and 'c' to me please?
a) is pretty obvious from the diagram and the text and c) follows from b).

Show some working.
Reply 2
Original post by Serendreamers
Could someone explain to me parts 'a' and 'c' to me please?


for a, draw 2 rectangles.

Make one rectangle using the line Z2 as a diagonal, and another with Z1. With angles and Z1=Z2, you can determine the answer
Reply 3
Original post by 2710
for a, draw 2 rectangles.

Make one rectangle using the line Z2 as a diagonal, and another with Z1. With angles and Z1=Z2, you can determine the answer


Hello

I'm still really confused as to why z1=iz2
Reply 4
Original post by Serendreamers
Hello

I'm still really confused as to why z1=iz2


Did you draw the rectangles? Let arg(Z1) = x degrees say. Now try and label every other angle of the rectangle according to x.
Reply 5
Original post by 2710
Did you draw the rectangles? Let arg(Z1) = x degrees say. Now try and label every other angle of the rectangle according to x.


Is it simply that,

z2 = z1 * cis(pi/2)
z2 = i z1

???
Reply 6
I have attached a picture
Reply 7
Original post by Serendreamers
Is it simply that,

z2 = z1 * cis(pi/2)
z2 = i z1

???


In my picture, tell me what y and k are, in terms of x. And then what can you tell me about the triangles
Reply 8
Original post by 2710
In my picture, tell me what y and k are, in terms of x. And then what can you tell me about the triangles


k=x, y=(pi/2)-x and the triangles are congruent
Reply 9
Original post by Serendreamers
k=x, y=(pi/2)-x and the triangles are congruent


Yes, can you see where to go from there?
Original post by 2710
Yes, can you see where to go from there?


So, from the triangles and their angles, I can deduce that

z1 = a+bi and z2 = -b+ai

which confirms with the statement

iz1 = i(a+bi) = -b+ai = z2

Is this it?
Reply 11
Original post by Serendreamers
So, from the triangles and their angles, I can deduce that

z1 = a+bi and z2 = -b+ai

which confirms with the statement

iz1 = i(a+bi) = -b+ai = z2

Is this it?


yes
Original post by 2710
yes


Well, I have already thought of this as a solution but the mark scheme surprisingly did not give me 2/2 marks for this explanation

Is there another reason why iz1=z2? Unfortunately, the mark scheme isn't very helpful...
Reply 13
Original post by Serendreamers
Is it simply that,

z2 = z1 * cis(pi/2)
z2 = i z1

???


Did the markscheme not reward this?
Original post by aznkid66
Did the markscheme not reward this?


See my above post, it simply states 'Explantion' implying that the answer is very obvious
Reply 15
Original post by Serendreamers
See my above post, it simply states 'Explantion' implying that the answer is very obvious


Sorry, I missed that.

Anyway, I don't see what the problem is. The mark scheme rewards partials for both adding the angles and using congruent components, so either method written out fully should be sufficient. What do you mean by "the mark scheme did not give [you] 2/2 marks"?
Original post by aznkid66
Sorry, I missed that.

Anyway, I don't see what the problem is. The mark scheme rewards partials for both adding the angles and using congruent components, so either method written out fully should be sufficient. What do you mean by "the mark scheme did not give [you] 2/2 marks"?


Don't worry about it, I just got a bit confused :biggrin:

Do you have any idea for part 'c'?
Reply 17
I'm confused about "in terms of z1", but it should follow from the diagram you drew.

Do you know where else the perpendicular bisector of an isosceles triangle's unique side intersects the triangle?

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