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    Hey, I had PHIL3 re-marked and it went up 17 UMS points (two grades). From a C to an A. Over the moon!

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    (Original post by will2348)
    Hey, I had PHIL3 re-marked and it went up 17 UMS points (two grades). From a C to an A. Over the moon!

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    Omg congrats, that's ridiculous how wrong they can be!
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    (Original post by will2348)
    Hey, I had PHIL3 re-marked and it went up 17 UMS points (two grades). From a C to an A. Over the moon!

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    That's fantastic! I sent off for my remark on the day of exams, so hoping it gets back soon. When did your remark come in?
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    (Original post by zeroandfalling)
    That's fantastic! I sent off for my remark on the day of exams, so hoping it gets back soon. When did your remark come in?
    I sent mine off on Friday, came back Wednesday lunch time . Good luck!

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    If anyone got a disappointing result, I would really consider going in for a remark. In January I got 72/100 for Phil 1 but after sending it off for a remark, it went up to 96- that's an increase of 24 UMS points! Good luck everyone!
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    The way I understand it is this: the naturalistic fallacy is the attempt to derive a value from a natural fact. So when we look at yellow, we see an example of yellow, or a fact. The mistake, Moore says, is to think that what we see is the abstract idea of yellow (aka: the value), when we really see only an example. He says that it's the same with good: we may see examples of good in the world in certain natural facts - happiness, for example - but to then infer from this that happiness and good are one and the same is a fallacy - the naturalistic fallacy.
    The is/ought gap is an extension. It says that we cannot derive moral imperatives from the world, because natural facts have a truth value, whereas imperatives do not. So for instance, 'happiness is (an example of) good' is a statement that can either be true or false (unless you're a logical positivist ), whereas 'maximise happiness' cannot, by its very nature, be either true or false. Thus the first cannot be translated into the second without a loss of meaning. This is the same principle as deriving a value from a fact, and so comes under the umberella of 'naturalistic fallacy'. I think.
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    Hey guys

    I was just wondering if anyone had some good notes on Plato in Unit 4

    My notes from my last year's lessons are not very good and I have self studied the majority of it for my retakes this year :O

    Any help note wise and from experience about the exam would be amazing!! <3

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    (Original post by KEB99)
    Hey guys

    I was just wondering if anyone had some good notes on Plato in Unit 4

    My notes from my last year's lessons are not very good and I have self studied the majority of it for my retakes this year :O

    Any help note wise and from experience about the exam would be amazing!! <3

    Good luck! I self taught myself the whole thing too. I got an A in this exam and uploaded some of my summaries onto getrevising.

    I just summarised the key analogies you will NEED to know, and pretty much bring into every answer.

    You can see them here: http://getrevising.co.uk/members/hannah3559/resources

    Hope that helps!
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    Hi! Do you have any notes for your PHIL3 exam and PHIL4?

    Thanks
 
 
 
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