# MEI S1; anyone else find . . .Watch

12 years ago
#81
(Original post by ~Bex~)
I'm not entirely sure what that is lol, but the question was simple enough. It asked you to work out something along the lines of the probability of 2 out of 30, and the previous part had already required you to work out the probability of 0 and 1, so all you had to do was work out the probability for 2 and add them up.
Bex, wasn't a reply to your post above mine, was a question for the person I quoted, from a post in Page 1 of this thread.

If a binomial variable is to be modelled by a Normal Distribution, then the Normal Variable must have the same mean and variance.

Mean of B(n,p) = np
Var of B(n,p) = npq (where q=1-p).

X~B(n,p) ===> X~N(np, npq)
0
12 years ago
#82
(Original post by moonscape)
Yeah, everyone found it really hard in my school too, though I thought it was relatively easy compared to the questions in the book.

This was what I did to get for the 3 paintings, god knows why I still remember these questions:

P(genuine given it was judged fake) = 1-0.64= 0.36
or you could have done 0.9*0.05 / 0.125=0.36

P(getting 3 genuine in the 2nd test given it was judged fake in the 1st test)
= (0.36*0.96) ^3
= 0.041

not sure whether this is the correct answer though
Ahh. I think I done the same, but not the ^3 which didn't seem so obvious at the time.
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12 years ago
#83
(Original post by Expression)
Bex, wasn't a reply to your post above mine, was a question for the person I quoted, from a post in Page 1 of this thread.

If a binomial variable is to be modelled by a Normal Distribution, then the Normal Variable must have the same mean and variance.

Mean of B(n,p) = np
Var of B(n,p) = npq (where q=1-p).

X~B(n,p) ===> X~N(np, npq)
I know you weren't replying to my post lol. I was commenting on your reply to the other post, saying that it was a simple enough question and that was all you had to do to work it out.
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12 years ago
#84
(Original post by ~Bex~)
I know you weren't replying to my post lol. I was commenting on your reply to the other post, saying that it was a simple enough question and that was all you had to do to work it out.

LOLZ, oh well ! Sorry for the confusion !

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12 years ago
#85
The Normal Approximation to Binomial is only in S2 for MEI. There was a lot of it in S2. But there is no way we would have been expected to do that in this exam... unless they were being really mean
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12 years ago
#86
(Original post by Pban)
The Normal Approximation to Binomial is only in S2 for MEI. There was a lot of it in S2. But there is no way we would have been expected to do that in this exam... unless they were being really mean
Okey, in which case they can't possibly expect you to use that if it only gets taught in a subsequent module !!

I think I probably suggested it as because when I did AQA Maths, it appears in S1, but then we had already done some Stats in the Methods module, so I guess content isn't quite in sync.
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