Marshall-Lerner condition Watch

McG67
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I'm currently studying the Marshall-Lerner condition and how it can affect a country's current account. The use of PED to work out whether the total revenue of exports increases or not when there is a depreciation in the exchange rate has me confused.
Say the UK export a good to the USA, a depreciation in the Pound to the Dollar would result in that good being cheaper for people in the USA to purchase. I've been told to work out the PED of the UK exported good to determine whether the UK's export revenue will increase. However, I don't see why the PED is relevant, which is why I am confused.
Say the exchange rate is £12, a good in the UK that costs £1 will cost €2 in the USA. The exchange rate depreciates so that £11.5, meaning the good in the UK still costs £1, but to the USA, the good costs €1.5. I recognise there is a change in the price to someone in the USA, but to the UK, they well still be receiving £1 regardless of the exchange rate, when the USA convert their Dollars to pay in Pounds.
So how can the PED of the UK export be used to work out whether the UK will see an increase in total revenue? To the UK, there has been no change in the price and the amount of money they receive. Surely to work out whether the UK's total export revenue has increased, it just simply depends on whether there has been an increase in demand in the US. Even a 0.0001% increase in demand for the UK's export will give the UK an increased export revenue, due to the UK still receiving the same amount of pounds.
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McG67
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The smiley faces should be a : and $.
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