Retention of title clause help! (commercial law)

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rubicon00
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#1
Report Thread starter 7 years ago
#1
Hi everyone, i'm doing a problem question for my coursework and I am stuck on a few points to do with trying to recovering goods when a debtor has gone into liquidation

1. If the buyer has sold the goods to a sub buyer using the same clause as below, and that sub buyer has not paid for his goods yet,
does this mean that he hasn't recieved the title to the goods either and the original seller can recover those goods from the sub buyer????? (because usually the retention of title clause becomes useless once the goods have been sold on right?)

2. In the question it mentions that the buyer (who has not yet paid for all the goods) has packaged over half of them into decorative boxes - is this significant or should I just ignore it??


the clause used was as follows

“Property in the goods supplied shall only pass to the Customer when the Customer has paid to the Supplier all sums due and payable by it to the Supplier for all goods whatsoever supplied under this contract and all other prior contracts between the Supplier and the Customer. Payment shall become due immediately upon the commencement of any act or proceeding in which the Customer’s insolvency is involved.”



thanks!!!
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rubicon00
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#2
Report Thread starter 7 years ago
#2
anyone?
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Aboudy69
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#3
Report 5 years ago
#3
I'm also stuck on the same question... ANYONE??

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gman888
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#4
Report 5 years ago
#4
Answer is 3.14 to 2 decimal places.. Hope it helps.
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Mimir
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#5
Report 4 years ago
#5
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