Charlottelou23
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Getting confused identifying the principle of law relevant to this scenario:

Without going into detail.... A notorious criminal- A - wants his money back from B and C,
A pulls up and gets out of his car, B gets scared and stabs him with a sharp object she found. Both B and C get into the car and drive off (C drove).

I'm fine with B, but what is the issue for C? Is this considered aiding and abetting, procuring, is he even liable?

Any help would be appreciated,
Cheers
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Jakaroo94
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(Original post by Charlottelou23)
Getting confused identifying the principle of law relevant to this scenario:

Without going into detail.... A notorious criminal- A - wants his money back from B and C,
A pulls up and gets out of his car, B gets scared and stabs him with a sharp object she found. Both B and C get into the car and drive off (C drove).

I'm fine with B, but what is the issue for C? Is this considered aiding and abetting, procuring, is he even liable?

Any help would be appreciated,
Cheers
Section 65 - 4 Criminal Law Act 1977: "Whosoever shall aid, abet, counsel, or procure the commission of any indictable offence, whether the same be an offence at common law or by virtue of any Act passed or to be passed, shall be liable to be tried, indicted, and punished as a principal offender. "

But C didn't really do any of those things and just being there isn't a crime as in R v Coney.

But then, section 12 -1 of the Theft Act 1968 says: "Subject to subsections (5) and (6) below, a person shall be guilty of an offence if, without having the consent of the owner or other lawful authority, he takes any conveyance for his own or another’s use or, knowing that any conveyance has been taken without such authority, drives it or allows himself to be carried in or on it."

Hope that helps a tiny bit
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