ayy_daps
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Hi, I was wondering if someone could help me understand something in my contract law problem question?

I won't type the whole problem, there's just one bit I'm confused about.

Basically, person A agrees to sell his car to person B,who works for a car dealership.They verbally agree on a price. Person B tells person A to come back the following day to sign the official contract. Person A arrives the following day as agreed, but is in a mad rush as he has a meeting to attend straight after. A doesn't read the written contract, assuming it contains the same terms that were verbally agreed upon the previous day.

However, in the written contract, it states that the car is worth £1,500 less than originally agreed after it was taken to a garage to be examined, and is to be sold at this lesser price. Person A, as he has not read this, signs the contract anyway.

Person A reads a copy of the contract a couple of days later and realises. Person A wants to either get the extra £1500 that was originally agreed,or claim back his car.

So basically, is the contract valid purely because he has signed it? Or is it not as they were not in agreement over the conditions?

I'm assuming it's still valid, and the fact that he didn't read it doesn't change that?
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Consider rectification for unilateral mistake
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Purpular
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You have to work out whether the contract was formed during the conversation or upon signing the document.
If it was done before then the man can get his extra money. If it was done on signing maybe he can't. Not reading a contract won't stop you being bound. You might be able to argue the term is particularly onerous in which case it would have to be made really clear for it to apply.


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ayy_daps
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Thanks guys
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vnupe
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(Original post by ayy_daps)
Hi, I was wondering if someone could help me understand something in my contract law problem question?

I won't type the whole problem, there's just one bit I'm confused about.

Basically, person A agrees to sell his car to person B,who works for a car dealership.They verbally agree on a price. Person B tells person A to come back the following day to sign the official contract. Person A arrives the following day as agreed, but is in a mad rush as he has a meeting to attend straight after. A doesn't read the written contract, assuming it contains the same terms that were verbally agreed upon the previous day.

However, in the written contract, it states that the car is worth £1,500 less than originally agreed after it was taken to a garage to be examined, and is to be sold at this lesser price. Person A, as he has not read this, signs the contract anyway.

Person A reads a copy of the contract a couple of days later and realises. Person A wants to either get the extra £1500 that was originally agreed,or claim back his car.

So basically, is the contract valid purely because he has signed it? Or is it not as they were not in agreement over the conditions?

I'm assuming it's still valid, and the fact that he didn't read it doesn't change that?
basically use this site's approach as a guideline:

http://www.legalmatch.com/law-librar...-contract.html

Then apply this approach to the facts of your case and build your argument while bringing in the appropriate and relevant case law/precedents...
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