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Laplace transform

Hey,

Ok I am probably missing something obvious here but the question is: given the laplace transform of y(t) is y^(s), what is the laplace transform of y(t-1)?

Using the substitution u = t-1, I get e^-s * y^(s), except the integral is from infinity to -1, not infinity to 0 as its meant to be for laplace transform. Is there anyway to work around this?

Thanks in advance.
(edited 9 years ago)
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Avatar for davros
davros
16
Original post by fkhan100
Hey,

Ok I am probably missing something obvious here but the question is: given the laplace transform of y(t) is y^(s), what is the laplace transform of y(t-1)?

Using the substitution u = t-1, I get e^-s * y^(s), except the integral is from infinity to -1, not infinity to 0 as its meant to be for laplace transform. Is there anyway to work around this?

Thanks in advance.


It's a bit late in the evening for serious thinking but I can't see anything obvious, UNLESS it's associated with the fact that t represents time and y(t) would be defined to be 0 for t < 0. Could this be a possibility?
Reply 2
Avatar for fkhan100
fkhan100
OP
2
Original post by davros
It's a bit late in the evening for serious thinking but I can't see anything obvious, UNLESS it's associated with the fact that t represents time and y(t) would be defined to be 0 for t < 0. Could this be a possibility?


Yep that must be the case. There isn't anything else you can do. Thanks anyway.

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