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I'm trying to answer the June 2012 question- to what extent do moral statements have objective meaning?
i'm really struggling with the intuitionism approach, which says that moral statements are objective, but our intuition is inside us, so surely that makes them subjective?!
Help would be much appreciated!
i'm really struggling with the intuitionism approach, which says that moral statements are objective, but our intuition is inside us, so surely that makes them subjective?!
Help would be much appreciated!
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#2
Hi there,
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While you're waiting for an answer, did you know we have 300,000 study resources that could answer your question in TSR's Learn together section?
We have everything from Teacher Marked Essays to Mindmaps and Quizzes to help you with your work. Take a look around.
If you're stuck on how to get started, try creating some resources. It's free to do and can help breakdown tough topics into manageable chunks. Get creating now.
Thanks!
Not sure what all of this is about? Head here to find out more.
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#3
Intuitionism is essentially the idea that there is an objective set of moral truths which can be accessed THROUGH our intuition. Our intuition is what justifies them as true/false, not empirical evidence. Think of intuition as an 'inner sense' of right and wrong. We therefore know things as right (objectively) through intuition. Hope this helps 
Are you doing edexcel?
Are you doing edexcel?
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