libertinegirl96
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I'm currently writing an EPQ of the title 'To what extent was WWII a consequence of WWI', and at the moment I'm investigating the effect of the alliance between fascist Italy and Nazi Germany.
I have found plenty of information on what the Pact of Steel meant and the relationship between Hitler and Mussolini, but I can't seem to find anything on how Britain, France etc. reacted to it?
If anyone can help, or point me in the right direction that'd be great! Thanks!
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Simes
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I think you are barking up the wrong tree. The inter-war alliances did not cause WWII.

One view is that Germany had a pro-war & conquest of Europe policy since the 1800s and The Great War and WWII were consequences of that. Meaning WWI did not cause WWII.

Another view is that the financial reparations put on Germany at the end of The Great War caused WWII, but that does not really stack up. Although it is widely held and assumed to be the case, Germany did not need to annex the Sudetenland or invade Poland to get the reparations lifted.

A non-national view is that there was social change occurring across Europe from the mid-1880s whereby more control was moving to the masses. This caused the creation of new or revised governmental models such as communism and fascism plus ways to achieve them through social revolution. It can be argued WWII was started as the only way to prop up the imploding fascist state in Germany in the late 1930s.
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