Equipotent sets Watch

010c
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#1
Report Thread starter 4 years ago
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Question: Use infinite decimals to prove that the real interval (0, 10) is equipotent to its proper subset (0, 1).


Can anybody help me please? I know that in order for (0,10) and (0,1) to be equipotent there has to exist a bijection but I am struggling with where to start.
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ghostwalker
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Report 4 years ago
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(Original post by 010c)
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Think of shifting the decimal point.

Can't think of a subtle hint.
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