Lilyghz
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Hi

I'm struggling to understand the dopamine hypothesis and how it contributes to schizophrenia. All I've been able to grasp so far that an excess/imabalance of dopamine contributes to schizophrenia but I need a simple yet more detailed understanding of it. I think my problem is that I don't fully comprehend how neurotransmitters work, plus I don't study biology so the biological terms mean nothing to me

Please can anyone explain it to me? I'm clueless :confused:

Thanks in advance
Lily x
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chickensthatfly
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hi i can explain to you how neurotransmitters work.


Nerve impulses always flow in one direction – from the branched extensions called dendrites, down the neuron to the presynaptic terminals.


The join between the presynaptic terminals of one neuron and the dendrites of another is called the synapse. The two neurons do not actually touch each other but are separated by a space called the synaptic cleft.


When a nerve impulse arrives at a presynaptic terminal it causes neurotransmitters to be released into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters then bind with special “postsynaptic receptors” in the dendrites of the receiving neuron.


When a postsynaptic receptor receives a neurotransmitter it can either cause a nerve impulse to travel down the neuron or it can inhibit a nerve impulse depending on the neurotransmitter released.




this video should help u understand the process


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p5zFgT4aofA
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Alicemidgetgem
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I'm not entirely sure because I haven't studied gcse of a level psycology, but dopamine releases positive feelings so when there is a lack of dopamine, the person feels low-people with bipolar have low level of dopamine and high levels of serotonin. People with depression have low levels of serotonin but high levels of dopamine.

Here is a link to explain some more stuff
http://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/232248.php]

Sorry that I've not explained it that well but I didn't want to give you the wrong info x
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JamesManc
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(Original post by Alicemidgetgem)
people with bipolar have low level of dopamine and high levels of serotonin. People with depression have low levels of serotonin but high levels of dopamine.
Iz dat true?
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Revenged
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(Original post by Lilyghz)
Hi

I'm struggling to understand the dopamine hypothesis and how it contributes to schizophrenia. All I've been able to grasp so far that an excess/imabalance of dopamine contributes to schizophrenia but I need a simple yet more detailed understanding of it. I think my problem is that I don't fully comprehend how neurotransmitters work, plus I don't study biology so the biological terms mean nothing to me

Please can anyone explain it to me? I'm clueless :confused:

Thanks in advance
Lily x
the dopamine theory of schizophrenia states that the delusions and hallucinations in psychosis are due to overactivity in one dopamine pathway, the mesolimbic dopamine neurones.

the older anti-psychotics ('typicals') work via blockade of dopamine receptors. they prevent psychosis according to dopamine theory of schizophrenia via blockade of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway.

there are 4 dopamine pathways in the brain and the mesolimbic pathays is only one.

this dopamine theory explains the side effects of anti-psychotic medicaitions.

parkinson's symptoms - due to blockage of niagrostrial dopamine, worsening negative symptoms - blockage of coritcostriatal dopamine
increased prolactic is due to blockage of tubulofunbidula dopamine pathways.

you must understand that these theories are only theories and should not be accepted as rules. there are limitations in the dopamine hypothesis, for example newer or second generation anti-psychotics blockage serotonin and block dopamine less, but have equal effectiveness at treated schizophrenia.
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Revenged
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(Original post by JamesManc)
Iz dat true?
no
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LucidMinds
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(Original post by Lilyghz)
Hi

I'm struggling to understand the dopamine hypothesis and how it contributes to schizophrenia. All I've been able to grasp so far that an excess/imabalance of dopamine contributes to schizophrenia but I need a simple yet more detailed understanding of it. I think my problem is that I don't fully comprehend how neurotransmitters work, plus I don't study biology so the biological terms mean nothing to me

Please can anyone explain it to me? I'm clueless :confused:

Thanks in advance
Lily x
I'm not entirely sure on the accuracy of this, as I'm literally writing an essay on it as we speak. (Yet to be marked).

However this was the segment I wrote on the dopamine hypothesis.

"The main theory underpinning this treatment is the ‘Dopamine (D2 Receptor Hypersensitivity) Hypothesis’, this theory suggests that the neurochemical dopamine is associated with ‘perception’ i.e. seeing, hearing and emotions. This is supported by research which suggests that people with Schizophrenia have been shown to have more dopamine activity (sensitivity) in their brain. This chemical imbalance produces too much perception which leads to the positive symptoms such as hallucinations".

Hope it helps in some way!:confused:
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Lilyghz
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(Original post by Revenged)
the dopamine theory of schizophrenia states that the delusions and hallucinations in psychosis are due to overactivity in one dopamine pathway, the mesolimbic dopamine neurones.

the older anti-psychotics ('typicals') work via blockade of dopamine receptors. they prevent psychosis according to dopamine theory of schizophrenia via blockade of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway.

there are 4 dopamine pathways in the brain and the mesolimbic pathays is only one.

this dopamine theory explains the side effects of anti-psychotic medicaitions.

parkinson's symptoms - due to blockage of niagrostrial dopamine, worsening negative symptoms - blockage of coritcostriatal dopamine
increased prolactic is due to blockage of tubulofunbidula dopamine pathways.

you must understand that these theories are only theories and should not be accepted as rules. there are limitations in the dopamine hypothesis, for example newer or second generation anti-psychotics blockage serotonin and block dopamine less, but have equal effectiveness at treated schizophrenia.
Yeah I perfectly understand that it's not a rule and that it's only theoretical. I just need to know this on point for by A level psychology class. Thanks, by the way. You've been helpful!


(Original post by JRHewett)
I'm not entirely sure on the accuracy of this, as I'm literally writing an essay on it as we speak. (Yet to be marked).

However this was the segment I wrote on the dopamine hypothesis.

"The main theory underpinning this treatment is the ‘Dopamine (D2 Receptor Hypersensitivity) Hypothesis’, this theory suggests that the neurochemical dopamine is associated with ‘perception’ i.e. seeing, hearing and emotions. This is supported by research which suggests that people with Schizophrenia have been shown to have more dopamine activity (sensitivity) in their brain. This chemical imbalance produces too much perception which leads to the positive symptoms such as hallucinations".

Hope it helps in some way!:confused:
That is very helpful, thank you! I'm literally writing an essay on it right now too, haha. What are the odds? Thanks again!
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LucidMinds
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(Original post by Lilyghz)
That is very helpful, thank you! I'm literally writing an essay on it right now too, haha. What are the odds? Thanks again!
Glad I could help!

You'll have to let me know how you do on your essay once your teacher has marked it

Good luck!

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Alicemidgetgem
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(Original post by JamesManc)
Iz dat true?
According to a psychology textbook it it
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