Fourier Cosine series of cos(x)

Hello peoples,

I think this is a trick question... well sort of :P

for part (a) i get that the cosine Fourier Series for f(x) = cos(x) to be:

i hope that is ok, but its part (b) that is troubling me...

is all that happens as

is that the cosine Fourier series of cos(x) goes to 0?

i am guessing i am missing some trick to this question?

Cheers! :biggrin:

Sarah

No it doesn't it goes to cosx - you need to take care with the n=1 term.

RichE

No it doesn't it goes to cosx - you need to take care with the n=1 term.

ah yep i see now. i need to be more careful with the n = 1 term when alpha = pi so that A1 = 1 and all other An = 0.

thanks for the help! :biggrin:

Sarah

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