1-1 functions Watch

khanpatel321
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The last part,

In the mark scheme it says you have to restrict the domain to x>equal to -3 to make f(x) a 1-1 function.

Can someone explain why?
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SherlockHolmes
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(Original post by khanpatel321)


The last part,

In the mark scheme it says you have to restrict the domain to x>equal to -3 to make f(x) a 1-1 function.

Can someone explain why?
Your function is many-to-one (more than one x-value will give the same y-value) so if an inverse existed it would be one-to-many which is not a function.
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Smaug123
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(Original post by khanpatel321)


The last part,

In the mark scheme it says you have to restrict the domain to x>equal to -3 to make f(x) a 1-1 function.

Can someone explain why?
It's for the same reason that we restrict \tan to \left( -\dfrac{\pi}{2}, \dfrac{\pi}{2} \right) for the purposes of defining \tan^{-1}.
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