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    I am getting very confused so I wonder if someone can help me?
    I am getting confused between implicit and explicit attitudes, I understand that with explicit attitudes individuals are aware of their attitudes and visa-versa but are physiological measurements an implicit measurement or is that different because the IAT is a measure of implicit attitudes so are physiological measurements of not? I'm very confused please help!
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    (Original post by CPsych)
    I am getting very confused so I wonder if someone can help me?
    I am getting confused between implicit and explicit attitudes, I understand that with explicit attitudes individuals are aware of their attitudes and visa-versa but are physiological measurements an implicit measurement or is that different because the IAT is a measure of implicit attitudes so are physiological measurements of not? I'm very confused please help!
    Hmm, its a good point. The whole implicit/explicit criteria is fairly vague in psychology, sometimes its used interchangably with conscious/unconscious or verbal/nonverbal. I think your confused because maybe there isn't a good definition of what implicit actually means (or people use it to mean different things)?

    I would argue that physiological measures aren't necessarily either - physiological measures are non-verbal (yes), however they may reflect conscious processing (i.e. one's known hatred of a particular race may be reflected in a phsyiological measurement), or they may also be driven by unconscious processing...
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    Thank you this did make it more clear thank you!
 
 
 
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