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    How do we solve the problem? The solution provided in the picture above makes it look easy but I don't understand the approach they have taken. How can you just 'break' the rod with only the 250 Nm torque and point C for example, to find the internal torque at C?

    Help would be appreciated.
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    (Original post by leosco1995)


    How do we solve the problem? The solution provided in the picture above makes it look easy but I don't understand the approach they have taken. How can you just 'break' the rod with only the 250 Nm torque and point C for example, to find the internal torque at C?

    Help would be appreciated.
    Isn't what they've done at c simply balancing torques? I.e. there's a 250Nm one, and some effective torque at c required to balance it? I'm not too sure though...
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    (Original post by leosco1995)


    How do we solve the problem? The solution provided in the picture above makes it look easy but I don't understand the approach they have taken. How can you just 'break' the rod with only the 250 Nm torque and point C for example, to find the internal torque at C?

    Help would be appreciated.
    To calculate the resultant internal torque at a point, we imagine a plane passing through the shaft, perpendicular to it at that point. Then it's a simply case of balancing the torques. In the case of point c, you'd have an unbalanced 250Nm torque, hence the internal torque at c would be 250Nm. In the case of d, there is nothing to balance.
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    Alright, I think I understand. Thanks for the help.
 
 
 
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