Physics Additonal Question?
Any tips? Is it because momentum has to be equal? If one force goes one way the other force must go the other? F=MA ?
And in momentum it's P=0
P=M1*V1- M2*V2=0, but I find it hard to explain...
http://filestore.aqa.org.uk/subjects/AQA-PH2HP-QP-JUN13.PDF
Question 1a, I can't seem to Copy and paste it in or insert the screenshot either.
And in momentum it's P=0
P=M1*V1- M2*V2=0, but I find it hard to explain...
http://filestore.aqa.org.uk/subjects/AQA-PH2HP-QP-JUN13.PDF
Question 1a, I can't seem to Copy and paste it in or insert the screenshot either.
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by iMacJack
It produces a force in the opposite direction because it is pushing against the water drag creating an opposite force, which in turn causes the boat to move forward.
Don't worry about equations for this question, for 1 B then yes, it is (16-4)/8 and remember acceleration is m/s^2
Don't worry about equations for this question, for 1 B then yes, it is (16-4)/8 and remember acceleration is m/s^2
Thanks
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