If you Have Sex With A Prostitute Watch

matthewduncan
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#1
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#1
Then dont pay her would you call it rape or shoplifting???
Honestly.
Girls you opinions are welcome as well
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CherryWine
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#2
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#2
I'd call it being a ****.
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Vixen47
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#3
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Shoplifting. It's all business.
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Baron of Sealand
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(Original post by Ifailedumad)
how can it be rape if it was consensual at the time you and her did it?
So if we have sex and I told you I've been using a condom the whole time as you requested, and in the end you found out that I wasn't wearing a condom this whole time, it wasn't rape?

It was 'consensual' at the time.
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kka25
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#5
This thread is :lol:
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HandmadeTurnip
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(Original post by clh_hilary)
So if we have sex and I told you I've been using a condom the whole time as you requested, and in the end you found out that I wasn't wearing a condom this whole time, it wasn't rape?

It was 'consensual' at the time.
Of course not. I'm unsure as to whether you're being serious or not.


To answer the OP, it's neither. Presumably, it would be something like "theft of services".
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Baron of Sealand
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(Original post by HandmadeTurnip)
Of course not. I'm unsure as to whether you're being serious or not.


To answer the OP, it's neither. Presumably, it would be something like "theft of services".
It is rape. I hope I will not have sex with you so I don't have to risk you fooling me into it.

Consent was given only conditionally, and that condition was not fulfilled at all. No difference between it and someone in a situation where s/he cannot make proper consent, or to drug someone into doing it - one is pretending to satisfy the conditions, the other is arbitrary removing the conditions. And most of all, condom use is an integral part of that sexual activity.
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the bear
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#8
breach of contract
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RumpeIstiltskin
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#9
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#9
No it's not rape since she knew the nature and purpose of what the act involved. If anyone is interested, then look up the case of R v Linekar. Basically a man agreed to have sex with a prostitute for £25 which he didn't pay. Although he was initially convicted of rape he successfully appealed and had his conviction quashed since the only types of fraud that can vitiate consent are fraud as to identity or as to the nature or purpose of the act.
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battycatlady
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Well...it's dubious. Had she known he wasn't going to pay, she would not have consented.

However due to the fact she consented during the act it isn't technically rape. Just a very, very crappy thing to do.
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HandmadeTurnip
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(Original post by clh_hilary)
It is rape. I hope I will not have sex with you so I don't have to risk you fooling me into it.

Consent was given only conditionally, and that condition was not fulfilled at all. No difference between it and someone in a situation where s/he cannot make proper consent, or to drug someone into doing it - one is pretending to satisfy the conditions, the other is arbitrary removing the conditions. And most of all, condom use is an integral part of that sexual activity.
After looking it up, you're right in the sense that it can still be considered a sexual offence. I still disagree that it should be explicitly categorised as rape though, as it doesn't strictly fit the definition. It's a bit of a difficult area to define.

I also don't understand why you would conclude that just because I don't think something should be defined as rape, I condone it or would ever do it myself.
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Dima-Blackburn
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Don't you have to pay them at the start?
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CherryWine
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(Original post by Dima-Blackburn)
Don't you have to pay them at the start?
Good point.
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natninja
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(Original post by matthewduncan)
Then dont pay her would you call it rape or shoplifting???
Honestly.
Girls you opinions are welcome as well
(Original post by Ifailedumad)
how can it be rape if it was consensual at the time you and her did it?
There's court precedent that makes it rape if the consent was conditional. I believe the case was where a woman consented to sex on the condition that he did not ejaculate inside her. Essentially consenting to one thing does not necessarily mean consenting to another similar thing.
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Guy Secretan
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#15
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#15
Its not either it's probably fraud section 11 gaining services dishonestly

Obtaining services dishonestly (Section 11)
The defendant:

obtains for himself or another;
services;
dishonestly;
knowing the services are made available on the basis that payment has been, is being or will be made for or in respect of them or that they might be; and
avoids or intends to avoid payment in full or in part.
This offence replaces obtaining services by deception in Section 1 of the Theft Act 1978 which is repealed by the Act.
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