b.mathilde
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#1
Report Thread starter 6 years ago
#1
Good morning,

I am a french student and I'm working on dialects, pidgins, diglossia..and so on for my linguistic exam next week.
I do not understand the difference between Pigdins and Diglossia.
For me, a pidgin is a type of lingua franca, used by people who do not speak the same language and in order to understand each other they use features from other languages.. like a kind of mixed language : For example, in Hawaii : people speak a mix of spanish,american,asian
And a diglossia is the same thing but just for 2 languages. For example : in Singapore with Singlish : mix of Standard English and Mandarin English.

In class, my teacher said us that Spanglish (Spanish/English) is a pidgin. And I do not understand why because for me a mix between two languages is a Diglossia...

Can someone explain me, please...? Because I feel completely lost :bricks:

I hope my english is correct ^^

Thanks for taking the time to read my message.

Have a good day
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scrotgrot
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#2
Report 6 years ago
#2
Pidgins evolve when two languages need to communicate for some urgent reason, usually trade but in your case immigration patterns in certain parts of the US. The key point is that the languages are combined so you get English and Spanish elements mixing in the vocabulary, grammar and so on and some simplification. (I must say the example given isn't the most iconic or straightforward an example of a pidgin.) Pidgins are not stable and within a generation or two will have evolved into a proper creole which is more like a proper systematic language with its own features.

A diglossia involves a social hierarchy between the languages as in Norman England where the Normans came in and continued to speak their language socially among the ruling class, plus imposing it on everyone else when it came to law, administration etc. But in informal settings the people carried on speaking more or less the same English they'd always spoken and this diglossia persisted for a good few centuries until the decline and fall of the Plantagenet ruling class in question. The key point is that the two languages are more or less completely separate and kept that way by a class system. Sure vocabulary filters down, even non-administrative vocabulary, as you can see in early English literature like Chaucer, but it's a very different process to a pidgin.
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b.mathilde
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#3
Report Thread starter 6 years ago
#3
Oh okay, it is more clear ^^
Thanks
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