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    Hi, can i pick your brains with a genuine question?

    What actual mandate to govern do the ten people on the front bench have to rule over me? As with the SNP Only one million people voted for them from a population of five million? Yet they seem to assume they have the unquestionable mandate to govern Scotland?

    The same with the Tories, only 66% of people eligible to vote, voted? And only 33% of those voted Tory. Can anybody surmise with an educated guess, what percentage of the adult population in Britain voted tory and therefore gifted the ten people on the front bench the mandate and power to rule over me?

    Is it only about 25% of the population? A quarter of people? If so does that mean three quarters of the population go away disgruntled. If so how can we say they even have a legitimate mandate to govern us? Thanks.
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    It matters not how many votes they got. All that matters is the seats, and they have those. it's akin to the Electoral College in the US, in a way.

    People are talking about PR again, and I am agnostic on the issue, but many seem to demand it as a means of locking the Tories out of government, forgetting that the Tories and UKIP combined are half a percent shy of a majority of the vote. We'd still be having a right-wing government in this election under PR, but with a more racist and religious tinge.
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    (Original post by gladders)
    It matters not how many votes they got. All that matters is the seats, and they have those. it's akin to the Electoral College in the US, in a way.

    People are talking about PR again, and I am agnostic on the issue, but many seem to demand it as a means of locking the Tories out of government, forgetting that the Tories and UKIP combined are half a percent shy of a majority of the vote. We'd still be having a right-wing government in this election under PR, but with a more racist and religious tinge.
    I'm not coming from a partisan angle, in support of any particular party, more interested in their assumed mandate to rule and govern by all parties.
    I think in real terms it works out as only 24% of the adult population voted the government in? Just strikes me that if I was in a student election and I asked the attendees how many people are voting for me and only a quarter put their hands up, I then ask how many people aren't voting for me and three quarters of the room put their hand up, could I rightfully assume I have the legitimate mandate to lead them?
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    (Original post by fightingtom)
    I'm not coming from a partisan angle, in support of any particular party, more interested in their assumed mandate to rule and govern by all parties.
    Sorry, I didn't mean to imply you were. I was reflecting on a lot of discussions I am observing in general right now.

    Parties do feel aware of their share of the vote, but as they are inherently short-termist, practical entities, their main priority is seats, to gain power and to demonstrate what they stand for. Perhaps we will get PR eventually for the reason that Labour are finding it increasingly difficult to do that.

    I think in real terms it works out as only 24% of the adult population voted the government in? Just strikes me that if I was in a student election and I asked the attendees how many people are voting for me and only a quarter put their hands up, I then ask how many people aren't voting for me and three quarters of the room put their hand up, could I rightfully assume I have the legitimate mandate to lead them?
    Yes Nobody's forcing those people not to vote, and the alternative is non-voters holding the State hostage to their inactivity. They want the government to work for them, then they should vote.

    Governments should work hard on persuading people to vote, however.
 
 
 

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