AQA French A-Level History: The Occupation of France

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skiing_running
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#1
Report Thread starter 6 years ago
#1
I'm studying the WW2 Occupation of France for the essay section for the exam and I have a quick question - how inevitable was the 1940 Armistice and why?
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skiing_running
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#2
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and the defeat?
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jobw
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#3
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#3
I'm doing Edexcel rather than AQA, but the same topic.

Basically some Vichy-sympathisers would say that the armistice was indeed inevitable. Pétain was not prepared to continue the war with such a high level of losses on the French side. The french army, navy and aviation was no match for the Germans, and it made sense to call for an end to the fighting.

Others, supporters of De Gaulle and revisionist historians such as Paxton, would say that the armistice was a decision made by Pétain for the good of himself rather than the country, as he would be made head of the Vichy State if an agreement was made. He was also ideologically sound with the armistice in political terms as he was a right-wing reactionary. Pétain could also make an effective case backing his decision to the armistice by placing the blame of the defeat on the left-wing government under Daladier and Blum, and also against the communists. Fascism was the convenient counter to both these ideals.

I've not got books on me atm so can't give full details but if you need more on that please say- it helps me with my revision too! I think the Edexcel exam question must be worded differently to the AQA one as I don't really have to think of the armistice in this way, but anyways.

Hope that's helped a bit
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skiing_running
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#4
Report Thread starter 6 years ago
#4
Great that's absolutely brilliant - thanks so much!!
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