I was just reading up on some public law for next weeks class, and I found out that the West Lothian question, which I first came across last week, was posed in the year of 1977. WTF?
Forgive me for my ignorance, but I thought that the question came about due to the process of devolution, but this obviously cannot be the case as the question was asked two decades earlier.
I am well aware of the fact that Scotland has been over-represented in Westminster since the creation of the Union, but what political/legal arrangements allowed for the West Lothian question to be posed in 1977, well before the enactment of the Scottish Parliament Act of 1998?
Can anyone enlighten me on the situation?