SGA 1979 (as amended) or SGSA 1982?

Any standard text on the sale of goods, or even on Commercial Law (including the excellent one by one of your lecturers) will have a good explanation. But it's pretty complicated, and often, it is far from clear how you would classify such "mixed" transactions. But both SoGA and SSGA imply the same terms regarding quality and fitness of the goods supplied.

Time for 1 Act to cover it all?

Yes. Unsuprisingly, a point that has been made to the appropriate people. It's the usual problem, though: lack of parliamentary time and other priorities.

I think I've grasped it... although I haven't dared to venture into the SSGCR 2002 yet!
The answer, I think is in the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 - it states in section 1 that it applies to the transfer of goods except in an excepted contract... What is an excepted contract - well, s1(2)(a) tells us it doesn't apply to a contratc for the "sale of goods". So - my interpreation is such that it IMPLIES that the two will never apply together (SoGA 1979 and SoGSA 1982).

Therefore - if a service has been provided (e.g. free fitting for a kitchen or windows) and you wish to maintain the right to have an action for that service then it will have to be the SoGSA 1982 that you seek redress under for faulty goods. Clearly the SoGSA 1982 does include the same implied conditions of s13-15 of the SoGA 1979 (s3-5 of SoGSA 1982).

Having read the jouranl article - 'Remedying The Unfit Fitted Kitchen', Robert Bradgate (LQR 2004, 120(Oct), 558-563) - it states (at p561) that the two Acts are "mutually exclusive". I've intrepreted that phrase as support for my conclusion that the two Acts cannot apply simultaneously under the same contract? However, I'm not totally convinced I'm correct in this assumprtion although I can find no further clarification.

The way I intend to deal with any question on "transfer of goods" is to apply the SGSA 1982 whenever a service has been involved, and iobviously the SGA 1979 when it is a pure transfer of goods and no service.

Is a consolidating Act required... well, in my opinion, it'd sure make things a sight more straightforward. I've wasted a good deal of time and offort coming to a conclusion that I'm STILL not certain about however it is one that seems most logical and justifiable.

You mean the old gem that it isn't going to win votes?

Yes, if the SGA applies, SGSA cannot apply. However, just because there's a service element in there does not mean you automatically end up within the SGSA. Classification is still incredibly complicated - have a look at relevant case-law around the issues.

Hmmm... I'm conscious of the fact that I MAY be getting myself bogged down into intricacies and detail above and beyond the scope of the module. I'm already confusing myself and I think I'm perhaps looking at the whole matter too closely, after all this is only an element of the contract module. Although it has been strongly hinted that there WILL be a SGA/SGSA question in the exam, the fact that this is a contract exam and not consumer - and given that the goods/services issue is complicated - I doubt they'd be so devious as to make it overly complex??? Would they?

How could a new act be got through then?

Just to point out that SGA/SGSA are not limited to consumer transactions, but cover B2B, as well.

Point taken - although the gist of the point I was trying to convey is that perhaps the real complexities would be reserved for consumer or, in the case of B2B transactions - commercial modules and not the contract module. I suspect the contract module question will "stick to basics". I will of course seek out this case law - not one to be staisfied until I have grasped a reasonably comprehensive understanding - but in terms of priorities for the contract exam - I'm not sure it should rank too highly?