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    The property rights of occupiers were protected as overriding interests if coupled with actual occupation under the Land Registration Act of 1925 and now under the LRA 2002. Recently it was stated: ‘the trend of cases shows that the courts are reluctant to lay down, or even suggest, a single test for determining whether a person is in actual occupation.’
    Mummery LJ in Link Lending v Bustard [2010] EWCA Civ 424, at 27.

    Critically examine this statement.


    > I just want to make sure I haven't missed anything off my list when answering this question <

    Talk about Overriding interests / actual occupation
    Look at how case law has developed overtime
    The current law
    Look at why there isn't a single test


    Have I missed anything off? thank you for the help in advance!
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    (Original post by jackx31)
    The property rights of occupiers were protected as overriding interests if coupled with actual occupation under the Land Registration Act of 1925 and now under the LRA 2002. Recently it was stated: ‘the trend of cases shows that the courts are reluctant to lay down, or even suggest, a single test for determining whether a person is in actual occupation.’
    Mummery LJ in Link Lending v Bustard [2010] EWCA Civ 424, at 27.

    Critically examine this statement.


    > I just want to make sure I haven't missed anything off my list when answering this question <

    Talk about Overriding interests / actual occupation
    Look at how case law has developed overtime
    The current law
    Look at why there isn't a single test


    Have I missed anything off? thank you for the help in advance!
    You have everything in terms of sources, but you need to do an analysis. You need to show how there isn't a single test, not simply verbatim state the case law. You also need to discuss perhaps why courts have not established a single test, with reference to the reasoning in case law.
 
 
 
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