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There is no such thing as the wage gap watch

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    I see no reason why people assume there is a wage gap.
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    Is this like the thigh gap?
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    (Original post by ironandbeer2)
    Is this like the thigh gap?
    Can confirm
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    Most leading economists put that issue to bed a long time ago, regardless the only people who used the statistic were feminists and now women on average earn more than men under 40, so I doubt you'll be hearing the statistic now that things have flipped in their favor...
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    (Original post by Dear Agony)
    Most leading economists put that issue to bed a long time ago, regardless the only people who used the statistic were feminists and now women on average earn more than men under 40, so I doubt you'll be hearing the statistic now that things have flipped in their favor...
    People still parrot this stupid notion. I.e: I came across this post


    (Original post by Romula)
    I don't think we're going to get anywhere here, I'm afraid. I believe, as do most, that women do not have equal rights, and it has been statistically proven that they don't have equal pay. You're never going to agree with me on this so I'm not going to try and convince you. It's been nice chatting. Goodnight.
    Thread - http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show...3682883&page=5
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    (Original post by Anonynmous)
    People still parrot this stupid notion. I.e: I came across this post


    Thread - http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show...3682883&page=5
    Perhaps someone should explain that's illegal, and has been since 1970 :/
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    (Original post by Dear Agony)
    Perhaps someone should explain that's illegal, and has been since 1970 :/
    Explicit wage discrimination may have been illegal since 1970. Wage discrimination claims still arise in Court, however. Employers are allowed to pay employees differently based on things like experience, time at the company, and subjective performance reviews. While explicit wage discrimination has been illegal, implicit discrimination, so long as you can find a possible justificatory ground, is permissible.
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    (Original post by NYU2012)
    Explicit wage discrimination may have been illegal since 1970. Wage discrimination claims still arise in Court, however. Employers are allowed to pay employees differently based on things like experience, time at the company, and subjective performance reviews. While explicit wage discrimination has been illegal, implicit discrimination, so long as you can find a possible justificatory ground, is permissible.
    That's true, yet if they can find a justifiable ground, they have reason to do so...
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    (Original post by Dear Agony)
    That's true, yet if they can find a justifiable ground, they have reason to do so...
    The problem here is that you've assumed the employer is altruistic and immune from unconscious psychological factors.

    It could be the case that at company X women tend to get lower performance reviews, this leads to lower wages. Unless I can put together a class action against the company, then no one will know (or if they do, be able to prove) that women tend to get lower performance reviews at this company. As such, they can point to an individual performance review and say 'she performed less well and therefore is paid less' and this looks justifiable.

    The employer could be accidentally or intentionally discriminating against women and covering it up by using 'legitimate' means to do so. The same is true in relation to race or sexual orientation or gender, etc.
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    (Original post by NYU2012)
    The problem here is that you've assumed the employer is altruistic and immune from unconscious psychological factors.

    It could be the case that at company X women tend to get lower performance reviews, this leads to lower wages. Unless I can put together a class action against the company, then no one will know (or if they do, be able to prove) that women tend to get lower performance reviews at this company. As such, they can point to an individual performance review and say 'she performed less well and therefore is paid less' and this looks justifiable.

    The employer could be accidentally or intentionally discriminating against women and covering it up by using 'legitimate' means to do so. The same is true in relation to race or sexual orientation or gender, etc.
    I didn't assume that, I simply see no fathomable way to make that work and nor can be bothered thinking of a way to, seeing as I personally would see the private sector destroyed and have equal wages for all job positions, which as a determinist is more in line with my views. To me trying to avoid this problem is unavoidable under a privatised economy, unless you were perhaps telepathic in this instance. Regardless women earn more on average now anyway, so unless MRAs enter the debate, which wont happen because the media are still hooked on third wave feminism, there isn't much point in debating this as it won't be on the political agenda for some time.
 
 
 
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