No marginal costs in there?
This looks like you are doing Bertrand competition with differentiated goods right?
You need to turn these in to profit functions so you can maximise profit with respect to own price (ie for firm 1 it will be d(profit)/d(p1) and set equal to zero.
Profit = TR - TC but it seems here you don't have costs unless it says anything about costs somewhere else in the question, if there are no costs then it's just TR. TR is PxQ.
So for the first one you can start by multiplying both sides by p1. Now you will have p1q1 on the left hand side which is TR. Differentiate with respect to p1 and set equal to zero.
Do the same for firm 2, but use p2 instead of p1 these are the best response curves.