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Dedekind Cuts

Hi,

Question:

Prove that the following subsets of Q are Dedekind cuts, or show which of thedefining properties of a Dedekind cut is violated. If it is a Dedekind cut decidewhether it is rational.
(a) C = {x Q : x x^2 1 0}.
(b) D = {x Q : x^3 2x^2 + x < 0} {x Q : x ≤1/2}.

My attempt:

I know that:
A subset X Q is called a Dedekind cut if
1) X is not equal to (empty set)
2) X is not equal to Q
3) For all x X and x' Q: x' < x implies x' X.
4) A has no maximal element.

a) C is not a Dedekind cut. The inequality holds for x being a rational number in the interval ( -∞, ∞), so property 2 is violated as Q ( -∞, ∞). So C=Q

b) D is not a Dedekind cut. The set has a maximal element 1/2, so property 3 is violated.

Is my deduction for a) correct?

Thanks for any help
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by randlemcmurphy
Hi,

Question:

Prove that the following subsets of Q are Dedekind cuts, or show which of thedefining properties of a Dedekind cut is violated. If it is a Dedekind cut decidewhether it is rational.
(a) C = {x Q : x x^2 1 0}.
(b) D = {x Q : x^3 2x^2 + x < 0} {x Q : x ≤1/2}.

My attempt:

I know that:
A subset X Q is called a Dedekind cut if
1) X is not equal to (empty set)
2) X is not equal to Q
3) For all x X and x' Q: x' < x implies x' A.
4) A has no maximal element.

a) C is not a Dedekind cut. The inequality holds for x being a rational number in the interval ( -∞, ∞), so property 2 is violated as Q ( -∞, ∞). So C=Q

b) D is not a Dedekind cut. The set has a maximal element 1/2, so property 3 is violated.

Is my deduction for a) correct?

Thanks for any help


I had never heard of this topic before so I can't be of too much help but for the part a) I think this.

You want to show X!=Q i.e that Q\X is empty.

To do this by definition of equality of sets you want to show Q is a subset of X and X is a subset of U.

To show X is subset of Q take an arbitrary x in X then x must be in Q (by definition of X).

Now to show Q is a subset of X take some arbitrary q in Q and then you need to show that the equality holds. You have just stated it in your answer but I think more justification would be required you actually need to show this holds for all q in Q.

If you can do this then indeed X=Q and hence X is not a Dedekind cut.

For the second part can't you just show that 1/2 is in D then you are done. (Since anything greater would not be in D because of the second set in the intersection). I think you would need to show that the maximal element is actually in the set though.

(Maybe someone else can confirm this?)

Just my thoughts anyway

good luck.
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by poorform
I had never heard of this topic before so I can't be of too much help but for the part a) I think this.

You want to show X!=Q i.e that Q\X is empty.

To do this by definition of equality of sets you want to show Q is a subset of X and X is a subset of U.

To show X is subset of Q take an arbitrary x in X then x must be in Q (by definition of X).

Now to show Q is a subset of X take some arbitrary q in Q and then you need to show that the equality holds. You have just stated it in your answer but I think more justification would be required you actually need to show this holds for all q in Q.

If you can do this then indeed X=Q and hence X is not a Dedekind cut.

For the second part can't you just show that 1/2 is in D then you are done. (Since anything greater would not be in D because of the second set in the intersection). I think you would need to show that the maximal element is actually in the set though.

(Maybe someone else can confirm this?)

Just my thoughts anyway

good luck.


Yup, all seems fine to me.

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