I've been struggling to understand this explanation put forward by the psychodynamic aprroach so i've tried writing out what i DO know, can anyone help???One psychological explanation for schizophrenia is put forward by Freud,who believed all our behaviours and actions were caused by our unconscious mind.His psychodynamic approach explains that we each go through differentpsychosexual stages in order to develop further, however, he believed in thedevelopment of Sz this progression through stages is hindered. It is explainedby the psychodynamic approach that; most adults with Sz, tend to experienceharsh childhood environments, often because their parents were veryunsupportive. This coldness, and lack of affection, according to Freud leavesthe child fixated at the early stages of the psychosexual developmental stages,specifically the oral stage – whereby an individual has only developed an ID, i.e.the pleasure principle. Freud suggested that Sz then, is developed once thatindividual is faced with a trauma which could be anything from a stressfulevent, to an awkward social situation. This is because the individual oftenuses a defence mechanism – most commonly regression, and regresses back to theoral stage of development where no reality principle i.e. the Ego had beendeveloped. This means that the individual then ceases to operate on the basisof a reality principle as they have not developed one, and this is wheresymptoms of Sz appear e.g. delusions of grandeur and hallucinations becausethey have lost touch with reality. One strength of this explanation, is that Sz does involve the loss ofcontact with reality, which is addressed by Freud’s assumption that theindividual with Sz regresses back to a period in which the individual had noproper notion of reality. However, there have also been many criticisms. Firstly; there has beenlittle research into this explanation of Sz and is deemed inadequate, as itmakes no sense to resemble a person with Sz to a child. This is becausechildren are often curious and energised, which completely contradicts behaviourssuch as catatonia, and withdrawal – common symptoms found in Sz patients. It isalso criticised for de-emphasising the importance of biological factors in thedevelopment of Sz, for example – it has no mention of biochemical factors, suchas the dopamine hypothesis which evidence suggests is a highly probable causeof the disorder. As this factor is ignored, it can be assumed that thepsychodynamic explanation of Sz is one which is narrow, as it only offers alimited understanding of how Sz is formed. Finally, it is largely criticisedfor being a hermeneutical approach rather than scientific, meaning it is allbased upon interpretation. This then lacks reliability because it means that itcannot be tested, replicated, or unfalsifiable. Compared to the biologicalapproach which has evidence of there being a genetic basis behind thedevelopment of Sz. �I�b9
This is messy to read.
Before you abbreviate you need to tell the reader what it is you're abbreviating and what to EG (Schizophrenia (Sz). You need spaces between some words, paragraphs and in-text references (Freud, 1924)
Have a look on the AQA website for past papers and a mark scheme with the exact answer the examiners are looking for.
Are there any other recent studies that support/disagree with Freud? EG. Fromm-Reichmann (1948) Bateson et al (1956) and their Double Bind theory, Oltmannset al (1991). you could also bring in the Behavioural approach of 'Labelling Theory'.
Does it explain the different types of Schizophrenia? (Evaluation point).