I was just wondering, since every year there are people who do the GCSE in a language that were fluent in it before other people even began to learn it
There's no indication on the paper about whether the candidate was brought up speaking it, and clearly they'll get really high marks, so does this make the grade boundaries higher than they would be otherwise?
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How do they set grade boundaries for languages? watch
- Thread Starter
- 21-01-2016 18:26
- 21-01-2016 18:43
Yes. The grade boundaries are dictated in the usual way, the top proportion of students will get an A* etc. They do fluctuate quite a lot though, Only a small minority are fluent in the language beforehand, so it does not cause a significant rise in grade boundaries.