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Integration: ares under two curves

Did an exam recently with a question like the title says.

Used the ( integral of y1 - y2 ) dx rule, however, I integrated fully before working out y1 - y2. However, someone else smarter than me worked out y1-y2 before integrating.

Does that affect the overall answer or are the steps interchangeable?
Reply 1
Original post by Regret786
Did an exam recently with a question like the title says.

Used the ( integral of y1 - y2 ) dx rule, however, I integrated fully before working out y1 - y2. However, someone else smarter than me worked out y1-y2 before integrating.

Does that affect the overall answer or are the steps interchangeable?

Can you post an example of what you mean?
Reply 2
Integrating before subtracting is just taking the area under y2 away from the area under y1.

Subtracting before integrating gives you a different function, but the area under that curve is equivalent to the difference above.

In other words, yes, they're interchangeable.
Reply 3
I am curious too
Reply 4
Original post by notnek
Can you post an example of what you mean?


Original post by TeeEm
I am curious too


http://qualifications.pearson.com/content/dam/pdf/International%20GCSE/Further%20Pure%20Mathematics/2009/Exam%20materials/Question-paper-Paper-2-June-2014.pdf

Question 7C. This isn't the exact question since the exam was on Fridays. The link is volume instead of curve.
Reply 5
Original post by Regret786
http://qualifications.pearson.com/content/dam/pdf/International%20GCSE/Further%20Pure%20Mathematics/2009/Exam%20materials/Question-paper-Paper-2-June-2014.pdf

Question 7C. This isn't the exact question since the exam was on Fridays. The link is volume instead of curve.


ab(y1y2)dx=aby1dxaby2dx\displaystyle \int_a^b (y_1 - y_2)\mathrm{d}x = \int_a^b y_1 \mathrm{d}x - \int_a^b y_2 \, \mathrm{d}x in general for continuous y1,y2y_1, y_2.

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