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    (Original post by lerjj)
    Well I'm somewhat happy that you proved my point. Y = -mx would be described as proportional, yet has a 'negative correlation', whilst Y = 1/x is inversely proportional and does not fit the nice pattern.

    Moreover, nobody uses the term correlation if you're talking about a simple theoretical relationship - correlations are for experimental (statistical) data. Proportionality is a different concept, and trying to explain one in terms of the other won't work very well.
    I will assume you do not realise that y=c-mx is infact the same as y=K/X

    You see, when you begin to play with the Taylor series or binomial expansion theorem, you will see where I'm coming from.

    So both cases are in fact exactly the same, inversely proportional.

    I don't want you to get the impression that I am arguing or trying to sail home my point, I understand what you mean and it is quite acceptable from anyone in that category of learning

    Cheers.
 
 
 
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