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AQA A2 Psychology PSYA3/PSYA4 Revision Thread 2016 Watch

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    For the graph question; it said draw ONE graph.

    I drew two bar charts, one for the median and one for the range

    But then I re-read the question and drew a third graph just in case which was basically the range graph but with a line in each bar to represent the median.

    Which is the correct answer!?
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    (Original post by NHM)
    I put Mann Whitney too- but again only 2 reasons :/
    (Original post by Shazam16)
    Nah you will be fine! Did you find it the result was significant or not? A friend said they found it not to be significant but I did. Help lol
    Yeh it was significant as the T value was lower a 63? then the table at 83 so signigicant

    I did 2 reasons but my third was more like why others cant be used as it was indepedent groups and ordinal so no other statistic fits
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    I put Mann-Whitney because it was independent groups, at least ordinal data and a test of difference was required. I was so close to writing Chi-Square so I'll kick myself if it's the right answer!
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    (Original post by PrinceNuada)
    For the graph question; it said draw ONE graph.

    I drew two bar charts, one for the median and one for the range

    But then I re-read the question and drew a third graph just in case which was basically the range graph but with a line in each bar to represent the median.

    Which is the correct answer!?
    Because it was one graph i just did 4 bars the first was median with experimental and control next to each other with space and then the next was range dont know if thats right, was going to do separate but is said one
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    Was the graph a bar chart? And then two columns for each condition, one for median and one for range??
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    (Original post by Shazam16)
    I put Man whitney. Was the results from the research significant or not? Also for checking the internal validity of a questionnaire, what did you write? I wrote about content, concurrent and face validity, is that correct?
    Thank God i did mann whitney u aswell. I said it was sig as the value in table wws greater than the T value (no idea if this is right i couldnt remember the rule??). I did all the same for validity q as well

    That graph q was hideous
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    (Original post by Eeveelution)
    I put Mann-Whitney because it was independent groups, at least ordinal data and a test of difference was required. I was so close to writing Chi-Square so I'll kick myself if it's the right answer!
    Youre right well done!
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    Omg I didn't leave 2 lines will that affect my grade???
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    The exam script should still get marked right and put the numbers of the question
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    I'm confused... Experimental and control are two groups... so how is that ordinal and not nominal, someone explain?
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    (Original post by CAPTAINSHAZAM)
    Yeh it was significant as the T value was lower a 63? then the table at 83 so signigicant

    I did 2 reasons but my third was more like why others cant be used as it was indepedent groups and ordinal so no other statistic fits
    Thank you for confirming. For depression, how many theories did you talk about? I spoke about Beck - evaluated with 3 studies + 3 more points. I also did psychodynamic 2 studies + 2 more points.
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    I used standart deviation graph, am I screwed?
    I also didn't put ANY research in addiction section, how many marks I'm likely to have lost?
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    (Original post by fabruttledge)
    I'm confused... Experimental and control are two groups... so how is that ordinal and not nominal, someone explain?
    Nominal isnt do with independent group etc Nominal and ordinal to do with data such as if its discrete or continuous as in nominal normally yes or no i.e male or female
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    Man the psychological explanations question was a middle finger to us

    Thank god I read over that before I left, if it had been treatments it would have been all over

    Thankfully media & research methods was pretty easy
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    What was the directional hypothesis?
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    Guys what questions where there for Media, Depression and RM. I've forgotten them but it was a good exam!

    Was the statistical test Mann Whittney U because independant, and ordinal. What was third reason? Equal amount of participants on each group?

    For the value, as T was 63 and less than or equal to 83 it was a significant value so it was not due to a chance, less than 5% chance of findings being due to chance?
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    ALSO: done with psychology for ever, best feeling I've had in years
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    (Original post by CAPTAINSHAZAM)
    Nominal isnt do with independent group etc Nominal and ordinal to do with data such as if its discrete or continuous as in nominal normally yes or no i.e male or female
    Hate to counter argue but nominal is to do with independent groups... All inferential tests are independent groups except wilcoxon
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    I left like 4/5 lines between each section, does anyone know if this will be okay, does the whole booklet get scanned?
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    (Original post by CAPTAINSHAZAM)
    Youre right well done!
    I missed that question. Where was it?? Was it after the significant question
 
 
 
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