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# can you think of a sequence of functions that converges pointwise to 0 but... watch

1. uniformly to 1?
2. (Original post by asdfyolo)
uniformly to 1?
Why?
3. (Original post by zetamcfc)
Why?
because i can't
4. (Original post by asdfyolo)
uniformly to 1?
You're looking for pointwise but uniformly for , or am I confused? I'm not sure that's even meaningful, since uniform convergence => pointwise convergence - if you found a limit via uniform convergence, you'd get the same limit pointwise, no?
5. (Original post by atsruser)
You're looking for pointwise but uniformly for , or am I confused? I'm not sure that's even meaningful, since uniform convergence => pointwise convergence - if you found a limit via uniform convergence, you'd get the same limit pointwise, no?
What I was thinking, spent my tutorial just now, trying to generate such a function, but if we have a uniform convergence then the pointwise convergence is the same. Idk about proving it but it seems true.

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Updated: February 19, 2016
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