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    uniformly to 1?
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    (Original post by asdfyolo)
    uniformly to 1?
    Why?
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    (Original post by zetamcfc)
    Why?
    because i can't
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    (Original post by asdfyolo)
    uniformly to 1?
    You're looking for f_n(x) \to 0 pointwise but f_n(x) \to 1 uniformly for x \in [a,b], or am I confused? I'm not sure that's even meaningful, since uniform convergence => pointwise convergence - if you found a limit via uniform convergence, you'd get the same limit pointwise, no?
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    (Original post by atsruser)
    You're looking for f_n(x) \to 0 pointwise but f_n(x) \to 1 uniformly for x \in [a,b], or am I confused? I'm not sure that's even meaningful, since uniform convergence => pointwise convergence - if you found a limit via uniform convergence, you'd get the same limit pointwise, no?
    What I was thinking, spent my tutorial just now, trying to generate such a function, but if we have a uniform convergence then the pointwise convergence is the same. Idk about proving it but it seems true.
 
 
 
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Updated: February 19, 2016
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