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    Hello I need a little advice, if a company assures another company orally that there products are natural, and then don't put this in the written contract and go further to say they are not liable for occasions that the items are not completely natural

    Would the parole evidence rule need to be used and misrepresentation?

    Sorry to ask just trying to get a coursework completely finished as running late on it due to just finding out my eldest has autism and been at a load of appointment 😟
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    If it's any help, there are already threads on this exact question from LyricalTurk or something like that, where we've stepped in with some pointers and analysed the question for them.

    Here: http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show....php?t=3898841
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    (Original post by Mimir)
    If it's any help, there are already threads on this exact question from LyricalTurk or something like that, where we've stepped in with some pointers and analysed the question for them.

    Here: http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show....php?t=3898841
    Thank you I didn't realise this.
 
 
 
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