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    I am a medical student and I saw one case a few weeks ago and would like someone to clarify:
    A elderly patient presents with a spinal injury after a fall. He had motor deficit of all limbs (Arms power 3 and legs power 0). There were no sensory deficit.

    To me this sounds like an incomplete lesion but I cannot pin point which type. Central cord syndrome gives you a picture of arms weakness>leg weakness. Any help would be appreciated!
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    I can't think of a single lesion which would give this picture. The complete lack of sensory signs with such widespread and severe motor loss is difficult to localise to such a lesion. Was there any reported motor deficit before the fall? Were there upper or lower motor neuron signs present? After a fall I would think you would need an MRI whole spine to rule out potentially multiple sites of cord +/- cauda equina compression, but even still, the sensory/motor dissociation seems a bit odd.
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    Yes, odd. Were his abnormal neurological signs all new/acute? And most importantly, what did the MRI show... ?!
 
 
 
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