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    hey, can u show me how u got 3.6 or something cos i can't work it out in my head. I haven't done maths since yr 10!
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    Havnt got a predicted grade!

    Think it went OK though.

    C4
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    The point is that it works for any mathematically similar shapes-

    Providing the areas are in the ratio 1 : 1.5, any corresponding sides will be in the ratio 3 : 3.67... So it even works for irregular shapes (like houses in the exam).

    Here are some examples:-

    C4
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    What was the answer to the question on the opinion scaling? I said that pupils may prefer the 5-point scale because they could choose the median value. Is that right :confused: I checked last years grade boundaries and they were around 75% for A*, do you think they will go up or down or stay the same?

    Thanks.
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    as far as i can remember the last question went like this:
    The probability that Chris wins a game is 3/10. The probability that he draws is 5/12.
    Calculate the probability that after three games there is exactly one draw.
    i worked out every sing possible way to get a single draw and then added up all the probabilties to come up with 125/576. can someoe explain how u got 245/576?
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    i worked it out i definitely knw that i got it wrong and it was 245/576. so far i know i lost about 20 marks out of the 120, can i still get an A* cnsidering that last year you could lose up to 27 marks. or do you reckeon boundaries will fluctuate?
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    i dunno really, maybe u should ask ur classmates if they did good or not, cos the grade boundaries depend on everyoneelses' performance. I for one thought i did well, but i think i made a few stupid mistakes
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    most people in my class did find it allright but it was much easier than last years. so the boundaries are bound to go up but by how much? the thing i wanted to know was that if last year you needed 93/120 to get an A*, what is the highest you reckon it will go up by this year? is it possible to go up to 105/120?, 110/120? or maybe even as low as 96/120 for an A*? (i really want that A*)
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    (Original post by az1)
    as far as i can remember the last question went like this:
    The probability that Chris wins a game is 3/10. The probability that he draws is 5/12.
    Calculate the probability that after three games there is exactly one draw.
    i worked out every sing possible way to get a single draw and then added up all the probabilties to come up with 125/576. can someoe explain how u got 245/576?
    I used binomial distribution:-

    nCx x P(not Draw)^2 x P(Draw)^1
    3!/2!1! x (7/12)^2 x (5/12)
    3 x (49/144) x (5/12)
    3 x 245/1728
    735/1728
    245/576

    C4
 
 
 
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Updated: June 27, 2004
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