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    (Original post by thelegend99)
    Oh ok, have you got it now? I might give that one a try.
    Got it in the end! Cheers
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    (Original post by iMacJack)
    Like this Zacken/Aaran??
    Apologies for the mess but I rushed it because you know I'm trying to get it resolved quickly :P
    Zacken kingaaran
    Attachment 534769


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    That's what I got
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    (Original post by iMacJack)
    Like this Zacken/Aaran??
    Apologies for the mess but I rushed it because you know I'm trying to get it resolved quickly :P
    Zacken kingaaran
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    Yes.

    (Original post by Hot&SpicyChicken)
    Can someone please check my working her:

    2x2x7 = 4x7 = 28

    Rep me if im right

    Thanks!!!!

    Bit worried about FP1
    It's fine but no rep.
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    Really sorry if this has been asked before, but can anyone help explain this? I've looked at the mark scheme but can't see where they're getting the answer from, and can't find any youtube tutorials either Thanks so much if someone can help!
    Attached Images
     
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    (Original post by kingaaran)
    That's what I got
    Awesome - cheers guys! kingaaran Zacken
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    (Original post by Strom)
    Really sorry if this has been asked before, but can anyone help explain this? I've looked at the mark scheme but can't see where they're getting the answer from, and can't find any youtube tutorials either Thanks so much if someone can help!
    If the argument of a complex number is -\frac{\pi}{2} then it must mean that it lies on the imaginary axis (specifically the negative part of the axis). i.e: it has a real part equal to 0.

    Find the real part of w in terms of \lambda and set it equal to 0 and solve.

    (Original post by iMacJack)
    Awesome - cheers guys! kingaaran Zacken
    No problem.
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    (Original post by Strom)
    Really sorry if this has been asked before, but can anyone help explain this? I've looked at the mark scheme but can't see where they're getting the answer from, and can't find any youtube tutorials either Thanks so much if someone can help!
    I had the exact same problem - no idea how to do it.

    I though about using the inverse of tan but no good?
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    (Original post by Hot&SpicyChicken)
    I had the exact same problem - no idea how to do it.

    I though about using the inverse of tan but no good?
    See above.
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    (Original post by Strom)
    Really sorry if this has been asked before, but can anyone help explain this? I've looked at the mark scheme but can't see where they're getting the answer from, and can't find any youtube tutorials either Thanks so much if someone can help!
    I like to draw a sketch of the argument. If you try to imagine (or sketch) it, you will notice that if the arg is -pi/2, the complex number lies on the Im axis, in other words, the real part must equal 0.

    Now Re(4-5i+3(lamda-3i)) = 4+3lamda.

    Hence, since we know the Re = 0 --> 4=-3lamda --> lama = -4/3
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    (Original post by Windowswind123)
    If you work from the unit vectors.
    The i vector if you rotate it 135 degrees for example anticlockwise will end up going around until it reaches the (+x, -y) quadrant. The x coordinate of that will be -cos45 and the y coordinate sin45.

    The j vector will rotate until it reaches the (-x, -y) quadrant. The x coordinate will be -cos45 and the y coordinate will be -sin45.

    So (1,0) will change to (-sin45, cos45) and (0,1) will change to (-sin45, -cos45).
    Alternatively you can use the formula sheet.
    wait where does the sin and cos come from? I dont understand how you know what to use?
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    Any last hard papers/questions you think we should do to be ready?
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    (Original post by Zacken)
    See above.
    THANK YOU! That seems so obvious now loool
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    for proof by induction, under what circumstances do we have to prove that the formula is true for both n=1 and n=2 and not just 1?
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    (Original post by iMacJack)
    Got it in the end! Cheers
    It's alright, I don't even think I helped you out in the end
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    (Original post by thesmallman)
    for proof by induction, under what circumstances do we have to prove that the formula is true for both n=1 and n=2 and not just 1?
    When it's a recurrence formula i.e: u_{n+2} = au_{n+1} + bu_{n} involving three different terms.

    So u_{n+1} = au_{n} is 2 term only, so only prove for n=1.

    u_{n+1} = au_{n} + bu_{n-1} is three terms, so prove for n=1 and n=2.

    u_{n+1} = au_{n} + bu_{n} is still two terms only. (it only involves u_{n+1} and u_{n}) so only for n=1.

    (Original post by Strom)
    THANK YOU! That seems so obvious now loool
    Welcome.
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    I just did the January 2016 IAL paper and cant find the mark scheme? Anyone have it?
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    How do I work out the area of a quadrilateral given 4 co ordinates?
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    https://gyazo.com/6467168742dc9d36085da052529e4e34

    Part C any one please?

    Cheers
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    (Original post by iMacJack)
    https://gyazo.com/6467168742dc9d36085da052529e4e34

    Part C any one please?

    Cheers
    \text{det}(A^n) = \text{det}(A)^n, determinant gives area scale factor.
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    (Original post by Zacken)
    \text{det}(A^n) = \text{det}(A)^n, determinant gives area scale factor.
    So it would be Area * (Det A)^4

    ?

    Cheers!
 
 
 
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