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Does divine law change over time? watch

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    (Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
    But there is no evidence for an objective morality and as I said, one that cannot be discerned would be entirely superfluous and thus can be discarded on the basis of Occam's Razor.



    It is not paradoxical because it underlines a very important point. If God arbitrarily chooses what is right and wrong then his morality is just as subjective as ours, what you'd be implying is that his nature affects the objectivity of morality, which isn't an argument based on logic.
    Of course, I'm just pointing out that you can't rule out objective morality with your previous argument.

    How is God's morality subjective if he is both the origin of all reality, and eternal and unchanging?
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    (Original post by RobML)
    Of course, I'm just pointing out that you can't rule out objective morality with your previous argument.
    I think you can make a good case for it as this is nothing more than the "you can't disprove an invisible pink unicorn" lives on Mars-type arguments. There are an infinite number of things that cannot be disproved, the real issue is whether there is any evidence for them and in the case of objective morality there is none.

    How is God's morality subjective if he is both the origin of all reality, and eternal and unchanging?
    Something being objective means it is chosen and judged by a being of intelligence. By definition, if God's morality were objective then he couldn't have chosen it, as the very act of electing certain things to be good and others to be evil would make his moral code subjective. The only way they could be objective was whether good and evil existed independently of God which is the second horn of the Euthyphro Dilemma. None of those qualities you listed have any bearing on whether something is objective or subjective.
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    (Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
    I think you can make a good case for it as this is nothing more than the "you can't disprove an invisible pink unicorn" lives on Mars-type arguments. There are an infinite number of things that cannot be disproved, the real issue is whether there is any evidence for them and in the case of objective morality there is none.



    Something being objective means it is chosen and judged by a being of intelligence. By definition, if God's morality were objective then he couldn't have chosen it, as the very act of electing certain things to be good and others to be evil would make his moral code subjective. The only way they could be objective was whether good and evil existed independently of God which is the second horn of the Euthyphro Dilemma. None of those qualities you listed have any bearing on whether something is objective or subjective.
    True, but your previous argument is irrelevant to that.

    If I accept your what you say here then nothing is objective since all originates from God (otherwise this entity wouldn't be God in the first place). Objectivity would be a meaningless impossiblity.
 
 
 
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