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Functions question

On page 27 of the Pearson Edexcel C3 textbook example 13c says "find values of x such that f(x)=f^-1(x)" how did they simplify that to:

f(x) = f^-1(x)
f(x) = x

How can f^-1(x) just become x?
Reply 1
Original post by mp_x
On page 27 of the Pearson Edexcel C3 textbook example 13c says "find values of x such that f(x)=f^-1(x)" how did they simplify that to:

f(x) = f^-1(x)
f(x) = x

How can f^-1(x) just become x?

f(x) = x is a function that satisfies f(x) = f^-1(x).

http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/showthread.php?t=3540817

Try reading my post in this thread.


Or thinking of it graphically, the inverse fuction is a reflection of the function in the line y = x. So only the function y = x could be the inverse of itself.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 2
Original post by mp_x
On page 27 of the Pearson Edexcel C3 textbook example 13c says "find values of x such that f(x)=f^-1(x)" how did they simplify that to:

f(x) = f^-1(x)
f(x) = x

How can f^-1(x) just become x?


You know that f(x)f(x) and f1(x)f^{-1} (x) are simply reflections of one another in the line y=xy=x. So when they give you the equation f(x)=f1(x)f(x) = f^{-1}(x) you know that the solutions to this equation lies on the line y=xy=x allowing you to simplify your equation as f(x)=x=f1xf(x) = x = f^{-1}x.

Examples:

ex=lnxe^x = \ln x, this one is hard to solve by itself - so let's use the fact that they are inverse functions of one another and satisfy ex=x=lnxe^x = x = \ln x which makes life slightly easier (although not very much so, unless you want to use the Lambert W function).

Here's another one, solve: x2=xx^2 = \sqrt{x} for x>0x>0 - they are inverses of one another and hence satisfy x2=xx^2 = x so x2=x    x2x=0    x(x1)=0x^2 = x \iff x^2 - x = 0 \iff x(x-1) = 0.
Reply 3
Original post by notnek
f(x) = x is the only function that satisfies f(x) = f^-1(x).

http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/showthread.php?t=3540817

Try reading my post in this thread.


Or thinking of it graphically, the inverse fuction is a reflection of the function in the line y = x. So only the function y = x could be the inverse of itself.


Original post by Zacken
You know that f(x)f(x) and f1(x)f^{-1} (x) are simply reflections of one another in the line y=xy=x. So when they give you the equation f(x)=f1(x)f(x) = f^{-1}(x) you know that the solutions to this equation lies on the line y=xy=x allowing you to simplify your equation as f(x)=x=f1xf(x) = x = f^{-1}x.

Examples:

ex=lnxe^x = \ln x, this one is hard to solve by itself - so let's use the fact that they are inverse functions of one another and satisfy ex=x=lnxe^x = x = \ln x which makes life slightly easier (although not very much so, unless you want to use the Lambert W function).

Here's another one, solve: x2=xx^2 = \sqrt{x} for x>0x>0 - they are inverses of one another and hence satisfy x2=xx^2 = x so x2=x    x2x=0    x(x1)=0x^2 = x \iff x^2 - x = 0 \iff x(x-1) = 0.


I'm still confused sorry :frown:
I get that f^-1f(x) = x because you're basically doing something then undoing it but I just don't get how f^-1(x) = x
Reply 4
Original post by Zacken
You know that f(x)f(x) and f1(x)f^{-1} (x) are simply reflections of one another in the line y=xy=x. So when they give you the equation f(x)=f1(x)f(x) = f^{-1}(x) you know that the solutions to this equation lies on the line y=xy=x allowing you to simplify your equation as f(x)=x=f1xf(x) = x = f^{-1}x.

Examples:

ex=lnxe^x = \ln x, this one is hard to solve by itself - so let's use the fact that they are inverse functions of one another and satisfy ex=x=lnxe^x = x = \ln x which makes life slightly easier (although not very much so, unless you want to use the Lambert W function).

Here's another one, solve: x2=xx^2 = \sqrt{x} for x>0x>0 - they are inverses of one another and hence satisfy x2=xx^2 = x so x2=x    x2x=0    x(x1)=0x^2 = x \iff x^2 - x = 0 \iff x(x-1) = 0.


I now understand this graphically but not in principle as it doesn't follow the principle in my reply above
Reply 5
Original post by mp_x
I'm still confused sorry :frown:
I get that f^-1f(x) = x because you're basically doing something then undoing it but I just don't get how f^-1(x) = x

The inverse of a function f(x)f(x) maps the output of the function back to the input.

So if f(a)=bf(a) = b then f1(b)=af^{-1}(b) = a.


Try it with f(x)=x+1f(x) = x + 1 and f1(x)=x1f^{-1}(x) = x - 1 :

f(a)=a+1f(a) = a + 1

f1(a+1)=af^{-1}(a + 1) = a


Now if f=f1f = f^{-1} then it must follow that if f(a)=bf(a) = b then f(b)=af(b) = a. So this function must be able to "undo" its mapping.

Let's try a function f(x)=x+1f(x) = x+1. This clearly won't work because the mapping will always add 1 to the input.

A function can undo it's mapping if it maps any element to itself i.e. the function f(x)=xf(x)=x.


If you're still not sure, please expain the specific part of my post that confuses you.
(edited 8 years ago)

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