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    In the book in topic 4 it talks about the decline and birth rate and it says 'The decline in birth rate in the first 60 years of the 20th century was mainly caused by a major decline in the infant morality rate (that is the number of children dying at birth or in their first year of life per 1000 births).
    Does this make sense or is it just me? Shouldn't it be that if the infant morality rate was decreasing the birth rates should be increasing?
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    It may be that families are not needing to have multiple children who die thus have fewer children thus decline in birth rate.
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    That makes sense, thankyou 😊
 
 
 
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