I am unsure whether I am using gender bias in the right way or not.
When evaluating a study that only uses either male or female participants I am saying the study is gender biased as it has not considered the possible alteration in results if the other gender is used and therefore cant be generalised to the other gender. Is this correct?
AQA Psychology Research Methods question Watch
- Thread Starter
- 19-04-2016 19:15
- 19-04-2016 19:30
Yes I think it is. When they completely leave out testing participants from a gender yet still generalise the results to that gender, it's called either Androcentric bias or Gynocentric bias (which are both types of gender bias). So you can say that or say it lacks ecological validity, either are fine.