I'm having trouble understanding how to identity which party is the covenantor. If A sells to B, and B promises to use the property only as residential (so cannot be used for business, etc...) which party is covenantor?
How does it work if A asks B not to use the land as business (rather than B saying they won't use it as X), is it still the same? So can the buyer impose covenants or what?
I really don't understand covenants at all so that example could be wrong. I have my exam in a couple days and I'm stressing over covenants (I understand everything else).
Would appreciate replies, thanks!
...or just paranoid?